dairygirl4u2c Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 (edited) 1. can a good faithful catholic male marry a woman, who says ultimately whether she will have X baby of their's is ultimately her choice, referring to abortion as an option to her? in this hypothetical she has the general propensity to have kids as normal people would, she just reserves that option. she's otherwise a decent christian. (id say catholic, but i dont want to get hung up on whether she's 'really' catholic or not, so i just keep it like that, given catholics can marry other christians) 2. what if she wasn't like that at marriage, but then after marriage changed to being like that? must he stop having relations with her, and forego his general duty to her in that regard? 3. in both situations, would that catholic male be an accomplice to the evil, ie at least partially morally culpable, were she ultimately to have an abortion given he knew of that possibility.? would he be an accomplice even if she never had an abortion, given that possibility existed and intentions of the heart are what ultimately matter to God? if culpable, what degree of culpability is it-- mortal sin, venial sin etc? Edited September 17, 2009 by dairygirl4u2c Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MissyP89 Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 It seems generally unlikely that a couple entering a marriage wuld want to abort children, but I would hope this sort of issue would come up in discussions long before the marriage. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatherineM Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 I wouldn't have dated a man who was pro-abortion. If I had fallen in love with someone before knowing that he was pro-choice, then I'd have made it clear that we would have to agree to disagree, but there would be no abortions during our marriage. It would be like marrying someone who was against priestly celibacy or for gay marriage. It would be something we would disagree about (and in marriages that happens frequently), but it wouldn't affect our marriage in a material way. Now marrying someone who wanted to practice birth control, totally different subject. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LouisvilleFan Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 [quote name='dairygirl4u2c' date='17 September 2009 - 01:54 PM' timestamp='1253206475' post='1968080'] 1. can a good faithful catholic male marry a woman, who says ultimately whether she will have X baby of their's is ultimately her choice, referring to abortion as an option to her? in this hypothetical she has the general propensity to have kids as normal people would, she just reserves that option. she's otherwise a decent christian. (id say catholic, but i dont want to get hung up on whether she's 'really' catholic or not, so i just keep it like that, given catholics can marry other christians)[/quote] That's not being open to life (there's no such thing as being partially open to life: you either are or you are not), so the marriage vows would be invalid. [quote name='dairygirl4u2c' date='17 September 2009 - 01:54 PM' timestamp='1253206475' post='1968080'] 2. what if she wasn't like that at marriage, but then after marriage changed to being like that? must he stop having relations with her, and forego his general duty to her in that regard? [/quote] Stickier situation... would leave that up to a good pastoral guidance. [quote name='dairygirl4u2c' date='17 September 2009 - 01:54 PM' timestamp='1253206475' post='1968080'] 3. in both situations, would that catholic male be an accomplice to the evil, ie at least partially morally culpable, were she ultimately to have an abortion given he knew of that possibility.? would he be an accomplice even if she never had an abortion, given that possibility existed and intentions of the heart are what ultimately matter to God? if culpable, what degree of culpability is it-- mortal sin, venial sin etc? [/quote] No doubt that he is partially culpable. That's common sense. How much and whether it's mortal/venial sin depend on the specifics of the situation, having full knowledge, full consent, etc. We can't apply objective one-size-fits-all rules to subjective situations. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rkwright Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 (edited) [quote name='LouisvilleFan' date='17 September 2009 - 01:47 PM' timestamp='1253213232' post='1968137'] No doubt that he is partially culpable. That's common sense. How much and whether it's mortal/venial sin depend on the specifics of the situation, having full knowledge, full consent, etc. We can't apply objective one-size-fits-all rules to subjective situations. [/quote] I have to disagree to his culpability. The man's intention is to have a child. I don't see how knowing that someone has a possibility to sin puts culpability on someone else's action. To me there needs to be a tighter nexus for me to say he's culpable. Simply the "circumstances" of sin without more, to me, shouldn't transfer the culpability. Would we say God is culpable for Adam's sin because God knew that putting the tree in front of Adam, Adam might sin? No of course not. An example - A friend says that they're so mad at Joe they're going to kill him. You hand them a gun. Friend kills Joe. Obviously your intention and action can be closely linked to action itself. Contrary, you marry a woman who says that she wants kids, but still reserves the option to be pro-choice. You have sex with the intention of having kids. She has the abortion. To me the fault is completely on her. Your actions had little to do with the choice to have the abortion; it only presented the circumstances. Actually, if you refrain from having sex you are yourself not open to life, correct? Now I do agree with your earlier comment. The marriage was not completely open to life from the beginning, so there are certainly grounds for annulment. Edited September 17, 2009 by rkwright Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tinytherese Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 I'd be concerned that the wife might find out that she has an unwanted pregnancy without telling the husband and then has an abortion behind his back. Also, when and if they really do have kids it would be an issue because one parent would be trying to raise them pro-life and the other pro-choice which would be a conflict both in the marriage and be hard on the kids. Also, if say their daughter got pregnant or son got a girl pregnant in say high school then the one pro-choice parent would probably push them to have an abortion. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatherineM Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 That's a good point that we often overlook when dating. A couple may agree to disagree on an issue, but then when there are kids involved, all that changes. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Nihil Obstat Posted September 17, 2009 Share Posted September 17, 2009 I guess in theory it could be fine if you agreed at marriage that the Catholic way goes no matter what... but I also suppose that for the sake of this question this isn't an option. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LouisvilleFan Posted September 18, 2009 Share Posted September 18, 2009 (edited) [quote name='rkwright' date='17 September 2009 - 04:08 PM' timestamp='1253214539' post='1968149'] Contrary, you marry a woman who says that she wants kids, but still reserves the option to be pro-choice. You have sex with the intention of having kids. She has the abortion. To me the fault is completely on her. Your actions had little to do with the choice to have the abortion; it only presented the circumstances. Actually, if you refrain from having sex you are yourself not open to life, correct? [/quote] Based on the way the question is worded, it's a marriage in which the wife is not fulfilling her vows to be open to life and the husband knows this, so by renewing their marriage convenant through their sexual relationship, he is expecting her to lie with her body. They are one flesh, after all, so if he has any knowledge at all that she considers abortion an option, then he remains at least partially culpable. As a husband, his path to holiness is getting his wife to heaven, and in this situation the best course of action for both of them would be sexual abstinence. It is better to abstain in faithfulness to God than for a couple to say with their bodies what they reject with their lips. Of course, most wives confronted with the rare husband who would actually be faithful to God than get his rocks off will probably stray and eventually divorce, and if that happens, [i]then[/i] her sin is on herself because she's seen her husband's courageous witness to the Gospel and rejected the opportunity to follow him. Let's remind ourselves of Joshua's command to Israel: "If it does not please you to serve the LORD, decide today whom you will serve." What you claim sounds more like the words of Adam, who pinned the blame of Eve's sin on Eve alone, as if he had no part in spite of their marriage. This is why Christ is a man: the husband's role is to die in order to save his wife. Abstaining from sex, even within marriage, is not so much to ask. Our baptismal obligation to holiness is greater than the married privilege to enjoy sexual intimacy. Truth is, they are not "within marriage" if both are not fully consenting to their marriage vows. Edited September 18, 2009 by LouisvilleFan Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sojourner Posted September 18, 2009 Share Posted September 18, 2009 [quote name='rkwright' date='17 September 2009 - 03:08 PM' timestamp='1253214539' post='1968149'] Actually, if you refrain from having sex you are yourself not open to life, correct? [/quote] Tell that to all the couples who practice NFP. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rkwright Posted September 18, 2009 Share Posted September 18, 2009 [quote name='Terra Firma' date='18 September 2009 - 09:14 AM' timestamp='1253283243' post='1968563'] Tell that to all the couples who practice NFP. [/quote] I meant to say that if one enters into marriage, planning on abstaining the entire time because of a fear that there is a possibility for aborition, then they are not open to life. NFPers are open to life "just not right now" - without getting too much into the NFP debate. Terra I'd like to hear your take on the transferred culpability debate? Louisville, I'll have to respond later at home... sadly my firm won't let me bill for phatmass time Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Aloysius Posted September 18, 2009 Share Posted September 18, 2009 a woman could marry a man who was pro-choice, "agreeing to disagree" as it were, because the woman will simply refuse to ever allow her child to be killed. a man may not marry a woman who is pro-choice (personally). as the laws stand, the man has no say to protect his child if she decides to kill it, therefore it would be immoral to consummate the relationship because it would put innocent life at risk of being murdered. now, I put "personally" in parenthesis because there does exist the type of inconsistent person who believes in the abstract that women should have the legal right to abortion (and is thus "pro-choice") but says that she personally would never even consider it for herself ever. such a woman may be married, if one can really trust her when she says she would never consider it for herself. possibly, if after the man and woman were married the woman then decided to become pro-choice, it may be incumbent upon the man to cease all marital relations. that's a tough question, like when one of the partners in a marriage is HIV positive, but the answer is chastity. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Slappo Posted September 18, 2009 Share Posted September 18, 2009 Simply put, if the fiancee/girlfriend had this mindset before marriage, they cannot be married, and if they were married, it could easily be annulled. One of the questions directly asked by the priest for marriage prep and signing up to be wed is "do you agree to non-contraceptive intercourse with *name*." Chances are if she would want an abortion she'd want contraception as well. Even if she didn't it breaks the necessity of openness to life within marriage. If she were to decide this after marriage that she would get an abortion, it is still within her marriage right to practice the conjugal act, and it would be immoral for the man to refuse her right (by marriage) to conjugal relations. It would not be bad for the man to try and get the woman to practice NFP while continuing to pray for her conversion from an abortion stance and talk with her about it/receive marriage counseling from a strong Catholic. Unless she agrees to abstaining with him, then it is still within her marriage right to participate in the conjugal act (NFP is mutual abstinence, this would be abstinence forced by one party). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Slappo Posted September 18, 2009 Share Posted September 18, 2009 [quote name='Aloysius' date='18 September 2009 - 09:10 AM' timestamp='1253290242' post='1968612'] possibly, if after the man and woman were married the woman then decided to become pro-choice, it may be incumbent upon the man to cease all marital relations. that's a tough question, like when one of the partners in a marriage is HIV positive, but the answer is chastity. [/quote] If the marriage is valid though, both spouses have a right to conjugal relations that cannot be refused by one party alone. It would have to be a mutual decision on both their parts to abstain (except maybe in the HIV case, not sure about that). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dairygirl4u2c Posted September 18, 2009 Author Share Posted September 18, 2009 [quote name='Slappo' date='18 September 2009 - 12:19 PM' timestamp='1253290759' post='1968616'] Simply put, if the fiancee/girlfriend had this mindset before marriage, they cannot be married, and if they were married, it could easily be annulled. One of the questions directly asked by the priest for marriage prep and signing up to be wed is "do you agree to non-contraceptive intercourse with *name*." Chances are if she would want an abortion she'd want contraception as well. Even if she didn't it breaks the necessity of openness to life within marriage. If she were to decide this after marriage that she would get an abortion, it is still within her marriage right to practice the conjugal act, and it would be immoral for the man to refuse her right (by marriage) to conjugal relations. It would not be bad for the man to try and get the woman to practice NFP while continuing to pray for her conversion from an abortion stance and talk with her about it/receive marriage counseling from a strong Catholic. Unless she agrees to abstaining with him, then it is still within her marriage right to participate in the conjugal act (NFP is mutual abstinence, this would be abstinence forced by one party). [/quote] why do you say that it'd be permissible if it occurred after the marriage? it looks like you just stated that it'd be permissible, without saying why, really. not that you didnt state or dont have reasons etc, im just wanting more illumination. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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