Paladin D Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 Why was Polygamy allowed in the Bible (the OT), but now it's considered a sin? The reason I ask is, some may view this as a flip-flop in the Bible, and rather hypocritical of Christianity. Permitting a sin, then claiming it's no longer a sin. How can one counter-argument this, specificially to one who isn't religious? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winchester Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 Having multiple wives was only a temporary punishment inflicted upon men. It was a kind of purgation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Aloysius Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 The Bible never suggests that polygamy is ideal... the subtlety of the text (much more clear in the Hebrew, I am told) always suggests that those who have only one wife are more in line with God's plan for mankind. I don't remember the examples that were once pointed out to me, but if I get around to finding some I'll post them... but polygamy, while not condemned in the old law, is clearly seen by the Old Testament writers as a corruption of God's original plan. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winchester Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 Thanks for the mature response. It goes nicely with mine. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AccountDeleted Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 They were allowed to divorce once upon a time too, but Jesus said [i]"Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way." Mt 19:8[/i] Neither polygamy nor divorce were part of God's plan. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Deb Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 One of the reasons why men had multiple wives in the Old Testament times was because of the constant warring. Women married, had children and that was about it. If a womans husband was murdered or died young for some reason, if a man (usually a relative) did not take her in and marry her, her only option pretty much was to become a prostitute. The Lord talked a lot about taking care of the widows and orphans. This was one reason why some men had multiple wives. Another was if the first wife was barren and they wanted to continue their line. Kind of a necessary evil. Jesus made it clear that was not the way to go, nor was it okay to divorce. Jesus brought us a new convenant. So, give it up, you don't get three wives. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pat22 Posted April 9, 2009 Share Posted April 9, 2009 god allowed one king in the OT to have more than one wife because for some reason the earth was short on people. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pat22 Posted April 9, 2009 Share Posted April 9, 2009 pity its a sin. three wives would be cool , just wonder how they would feel about it? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pat22 Posted April 9, 2009 Share Posted April 9, 2009 I crack myself up. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
reyb Posted April 9, 2009 Share Posted April 9, 2009 [quote name='Paladin D' post='1827609' date='Apr 7 2009, 11:12 AM']Why was Polygamy allowed in the Bible (the OT), but now it's considered a sin? The reason I ask is, some may view this as a flip-flop in the Bible, and rather hypocritical of Christianity. Permitting a sin, then claiming it's no longer a sin. How can one counter-argument this, specificially to one who isn't religious?[/quote] [indent]First thing first, who said 'polygamy' is a sin against God? (let us make it scriptural). And on the other hand, who said that 'polygamy' was allowed by God?[/indent] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mr.Cat Posted April 9, 2009 Share Posted April 9, 2009 (edited) [quote name='Paladin D' post='1827609' date='Apr 7 2009, 12:12 PM']Why was Polygamy allowed in the Bible (the OT), but now it's considered a sin? The reason I ask is, some may view this as a flip-flop in the Bible, and rather hypocritical of Christianity. Permitting a sin, then claiming it's no longer a sin. How can one counter-argument this, specificially to one who isn't religious?[/quote]In the Old Testament, after the fall of man in the [url="http://www.drbo.org/book/01.htm"]Book of Genesis[/url], there is "natural marriage", which is not "Sacramental Marriage". Sacramental Marriage was what our Blessed Lord restored to humanity, [i]which some might assume is what Adam and Eve had[/i]. In Catholicism there is a difference between the two, natural marriage and Sacramental Marriage. But even in the Old Testament the coming of Sacramental Marriage was foreshadowed. Comparing marriage in the Old Testament to the New Testament, to use a metaphor, is like comparing apples to oranges. Though there is, [i][b]in my personal opinion[/b][/i], a lot of sense in keeping sexuality contained between two persons: to protect family structure, the spouses involved, to protect the health of people, and defend against sexual crimes. [i]Fantasies are fantasies, but lets keep reality in reality...[/i][quote name='reyb' post='1829804' date='Apr 9 2009, 06:52 AM']First thing first, who said 'polygamy' is a sin against God? (let us make it scriptural). And on the other hand, who said that 'polygamy' was allowed by God?[/quote]Good questions to ask... Edited April 9, 2009 by Mr.CatholicCat Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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