eagle_eye222001 Posted September 18, 2008 Author Share Posted September 18, 2008 Thanks to all who responded however I still have not gotten what I want. A non-Catholic interpretation of the keys that is backed by other verses in the Bible. I have gotten different interpretations...but none of them have anything to back them up yet. Maybe what I am looking for does not exists. Does Dr. Pepper pay for this emoticon? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Paddington Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 Here's an interesting layer on "upon this rock." [url="http://highwaytohaiti.com/2008/03/13/the-gates-of-hell/"]http://highwaytohaiti.com/2008/03/13/the-gates-of-hell/[/url] Anywho....so was Christ certainly speaking Aramaic? To say "most likely" doesn't help anything. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LouisvilleFan Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 [quote name='thessalonian' post='1655962' date='Sep 15 2008, 03:53 PM']7) Peter can't be the rock because Jesus calls him satan in the next chapter of Matt.[/quote] Indeed, Judas was the first pope. Jesus called him "friend." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LouisvilleFan Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 [quote name='Paddington' post='1658204' date='Sep 18 2008, 12:07 PM']Anywho....so was Christ certainly speaking Aramaic? To say "most likely" doesn't help anything.[/quote] It's not a known fact, and obviously isn't a matter of dogma, but the language of common Israelites during Jesus' time was Aramaic so it stands to reason this is the language he spoke. I'm pretty sure "Maranatha" is an Aramaic word. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Paddington Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 [quote name='LouisvilleFan' post='1658213' date='Sep 18 2008, 02:01 PM']It's not a known fact, and obviously isn't a matter of dogma, but the language of common Israelites during Jesus' time was Aramaic so it stands to reason this is the language he spoke. I'm pretty sure "Maranatha" is an Aramaic word.[/quote] Thanks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LouisvilleFan Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 (edited) [quote name='CatherineM' post='1655863' date='Sep 15 2008, 12:57 PM']Most church's ignore it. They don't preach on a rotation of scripture like we do. Mostly, they preach on what they want to, and just never get around to this section.[/quote] Well, perhaps most churches in North America since Baptist, Presbyterian, non-denomational, etc. types are predominant in many areas, but fact is most Protestants worldwide are Anglican, Lutheran, Methodist, or some other liturgical tradition that does preach a rotation of Scripture, even the same rotation we use. And, obviously the Eastern Orthodox have their interpretation based on their view of Tradition. [quote name='BG45' post='1655892' date='Sep 15 2008, 01:59 PM']To reiterate CatherineM's point, I never heard this verse even until I thought about converting and was trying to disprove Catholicism.[/quote] Interestingly, the first time I heard any reference to this verse was from a Baptist girl's t-shirt that said "faith like cephas" across the front. She explained to me that "cephas" was the Aramaic of Peter's name and means "rock." My experience as a Protestant is that good pastors and preachers do not shy away from difficult verses like this one. I don't recall hearing my former church preached on Matthew 16:18 specifically, but they never skipped over verses that didn't make sense at first glance. Truth be told, I hear more quotes from the Church Fathers when I go to my old Baptist church than I ever hear during a homily at Mass. In fact, several of the Fathers interpret this verse as Jesus referring to Peter's faith -- not Peter himself -- so that is a large reason why non-Catholics are comfortable with this interpretation. Edited September 18, 2008 by LouisvilleFan Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Balthazor Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 I really do not know if you can scripturally refute apostalic succession......I brought this up with protestants before and I have been given two reasons though by various protestants as to why they do not follow it. 1. Is based on Revalations chapter 17 whereby the protestants interpret the Church of Rome to be the false church and the Pope to be the anti-Christ. Needless to say this interpretation discourages them from becoming Catholic.... 2. The other is a general refutement of the priesthood in general which would include the Pope. Where they refer to the phrase in Matthew chapter 23: "Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven". However I find no direct refutement of apostalic succession... just these two general refutements interpreted in regard to the Catholic Church and the Pope as it's leader. And in regard to the preisthood in general. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
thessalonian Posted September 18, 2008 Share Posted September 18, 2008 [quote name='LouisvilleFan' post='1658213' date='Sep 18 2008, 11:31 AM']It's not a known fact, and obviously isn't a matter of dogma, but the language of common Israelites during Jesus' time was Aramaic so it stands to reason this is the language he spoke. I'm pretty sure "Maranatha" is an Aramaic word.[/quote] Simon bar-johna is an aramaic way of stating a name and there are many other evidences of it in the NT so it seems very likely. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eagle_eye222001 Posted September 19, 2008 Author Share Posted September 19, 2008 (edited) [quote name='Balthazor' post='1658220' date='Sep 18 2008, 11:47 AM']I really do not know if you can scripturally refute apostalic succession......I brought this up with protestants before and I have been given two reasons though by various protestants as to why they do not follow it. 1. Is based on Revalations chapter 17 whereby the protestants interpret the Church of Rome to be the false church and the Pope to be the anti-Christ. Needless to say this interpretation discourages them from becoming Catholic.... 2. The other is a general refutement of the priesthood in general which would include the Pope. Where they refer to the phrase in Matthew chapter 23: "Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven". However I find no direct refutement of apostalic succession... just these two general refutements interpreted in regard to the Catholic Church and the Pope as it's leader. And in regard to the preisthood in general.[/quote] The problem with with interpreting Revelation 17 to be including the Roman Catholic Church is that then you are saying that the church Jesus started is in fact the anti-Christ church. A point to be made. [b]1. Jesus set up one church[/b] In Matthew 16: 18-19 [i]18 So I now say to you: You are Peter and on this rock I will build my church. And the gates of hell will never overpower it. 19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of Heaven: whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven; whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.' [/i] Jesus sets up a church-not churches. Does Jesus say that only Peter is to have this key and not pass it on? Does the leadership position (Pope) just evaporate after Peter dies and then it's a free-for-all in terms of interpretation. Remember the Bible will not be set for at least 300 years so we only have the Church and Not Scripture. Also note in Acts the prominent role Peter plays. His name is mentioned way more than anyone else and he is usually listed first. Would Jesus create a leadership position that would evaporate after he died so not only would Jesus not be on earth, but then the church that Jesus set up has no leader? Would Jesus set up a church to begin splitting immediately when people differed on interpretation and what was correct and what was not? I think not. Matthew 28:18-20 [i]19 Go, therefore, make disciples of all nations; baptize them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teach them to observe all the commands I gave you. And look, I am with you always; yes, to the end of time.' [/i] John 20:21 [i]21 and he said to them again, 'Peace be with you. 'As the Father sent me, so am I sending you.' [/i] Note in Matthew 28:18-19 Jesus is given all authority by God the Father and then Jesus sends the apostles out as the Father has sent him. Note also how Jesus says he will be with them until the end of time. Now, the apostles Jesus sent out, are they still around? Did they make it to the end of time or did they die? If you say that Jesus was talking about being with the church until the end of time, it makes sense. Otherwise, it does not. Jesus would otherwise be saying that he will be with the apostles who were right there, but he would not be with the church. This church that Jesus formed is the Catholic Church. This Apostolic Succession thing is the Catholic Church. If you cannot refute Apostolic Succession, then you sure as heck cannot interpret Rev 17 as being the Catholic Church being the anti-church. Then you are saying that Jesus formed the anti-church. How many Christians will stand by that theory? [b]The 2nd argument about calling no man father is in...[/b] Matthew 23:9 [i]Call no one on earth your father; you have but one father in heaven.[/i] ...is quickely and easily refuted. I am surprised this still comes out. The first quick way to attack this is to question the fourth commandment. Exodus 20:12 [i]Honor your father and your mother that you may have a long life in the land which the Lord your God is giving you.[/i] Is God talking about honoring God and your mother or your biological father and biological mother? Last I heard, every Christian takes this as honoring your biological father and biological mother. Acts 7:2 [i]2 He replied, 'My brothers, my fathers, listen to what I have to say. The God of glory appeared to our father Abraham, while he was in Mesopotamia before settling in Haran, [/i] "father Abraham?" This does not fit into what Jesus was saying. 1 Thessalonians 2:11 [i]As you know, we treated each one of as a father treats his children,[/i] Another infraction, or maybe we misinterpreted Matthew 23:9 What about Matthew 23:8 [i]As for you, do not be called 'Rabbi.' You have but one teacher, and you are all brothers.[/i] Matthew 23:10 [i] Do not be called 'Master'; you have but one master, the Messiah[/i] So we can't use Father, Rabbi/Teacher, or Master? Do the Christians who say we cannot use the title 'father' also not use 'teacher' and 'master?' Or maybe there is some context going on. Matthew 23:1-13 [i] 1 Then addressing the crowds and his disciples Jesus said, 2 'The scribes and the Pharisees occupy the chair of Moses. 3 You must therefore do and observe what they tell you; but do not be guided by what they do, since they do not practise what they preach. 4 They tie up heavy burdens and lay them on people's shoulders, but will they lift a finger to move them? Not they! 5 Everything they do is done to attract attention, like wearing broader headbands and longer tassels, 6 like wanting to take the place of honour at banquets and the front seats in the synagogues, 7 being greeted respectfully in the market squares and having people call them Rabbi. 8 'You, however, must not allow yourselves to be called Rabbi, since you have only one Master, and you are all brothers. 9 You must call no one on earth your father, since you have only one Father, and he is in heaven. 10 Nor must you allow yourselves to be called teachers, for you have only one Teacher, the Christ. 11 The greatest among you must be your servant. 12 Anyone who raises himself up will be humbled, and anyone who humbles himself will be raised up. 13 'Alas for you, scribes and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You shut up the kingdom of Heaven in people's faces, neither going in yourselves nor allowing others to go who want to. [/i] Context makes all the difference. The 'father' argument does not hold any water. Edited September 19, 2008 by eagle_eye222001 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BG45 Posted September 19, 2008 Share Posted September 19, 2008 [quote name='LouisvilleFan' post='1658217' date='Sep 18 2008, 12:42 PM']Interestingly, the first time I heard any reference to this verse was from a Baptist girl's t-shirt that said "faith like cephas" across the front. She explained to me that "cephas" was the Aramaic of Peter's name and means "rock." My experience as a Protestant is that good pastors and preachers do not shy away from difficult verses like this one. I don't recall hearing my former church preached on Matthew 16:18 specifically, but they never skipped over verses that didn't make sense at first glance. Truth be told, I hear more quotes from the Church Fathers when I go to my old Baptist church than I ever hear during a homily at Mass. In fact, several of the Fathers interpret this verse as Jesus referring to Peter's faith -- not Peter himself -- so that is a large reason why non-Catholics are comfortable with this interpretation.[/quote] Nice! The shirts I tend to see around here are along the lines of "idk my bff God" and "Warning: Radical Christian". That and the Fish on every vehicle that drives insanely. I think the last time I heard about one of the Early Church Fathers in church was at mom's Methodist church when the minister and I were discussing after. I brought up something or another by Ignatius of Antioch and he asked me if we could talk about something else, our conversation was reminding him too much of seminary. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dairygirl4u2c Posted September 19, 2008 Share Posted September 19, 2008 (edited) there's tons of ways to interpret the keys that isn't necessarily catholic. it's like eagle asks "are there any other interpretations" then hears them, and keeps asking without addressing the ones he hears, it's like in one ear and out the other. catholic encylopedia itself contradicts his notion of hte keys: QUOTE It is comparatively seldom that the Fathers, when speaking of the power of the keys, make any reference to the supremacy of St. Peter. When they deal with that question, they ordinarily appeal not to the gift of the keys but to his office as the rock QUOTE (1) In the Fathers the references to the promise of Matthew 16:19, are of frequent occurrence. Almost invariably the words of Christ are cited in proof of the Church's power to forgive sins. The application is a natural one, for the promise of the keys is immediately followed by the words: "Whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth", etc. [url="http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08631b.htm"]http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08631b.htm[/url] [quote]several of the Fathers interpret this verse as Jesus referring to Peter's faith -- not Peter himself -- so that is a large reason why non-Catholics are comfortable with this interpretation.[/quote] binding and losing. if this person could bind and lose (the verse that's often said to refer to the pope, but then read completely shows opposite in fact), maybe what catholics think isn't necessarily what is true: [quote]QUOTE 22 And I will lay the key of the house of David upon his shoulder: and he shall open, and none shall shut: and he shall shut, and none shall open. 23 And I will fasten him as a peg in a sure place, and he shall be for a throne of glory to the house of his father. 24 And they shall hang upon him all the glory of his father's house, divers kinds of vessels, every little vessel, from the vessels of cups even to every instrument of music. 25 In that day, saith the Lord of hosts, shall the peg be removed, that was fastened in the sure place: and it shall be broken and shall fall: and that which hung thereon, shall perish, because the Lord hath spoken it.[/quote] matthew 18, binding and losing was given to all. now that the keys means the papal supremecy has been deconstructed. some plausible interpretations. peter was the first to confess faith. that means he'd be the leader in going to heaven, the first. the keys could just be a way of saying "binding and losing" and that it was referred as keys to peter does't negate it to anyone else... there's no reason it'd have to be. the keys could mean the way of faith, his confession, a christian's confession is the "key". none of this is rationalization either, it's all totally plausible once you accept tht the catholic interpretation isn't necessarily the right one. Edited September 19, 2008 by dairygirl4u2c Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eagle_eye222001 Posted September 19, 2008 Author Share Posted September 19, 2008 [quote name='dairygirl4u2c' post='1658802' date='Sep 18 2008, 11:41 PM'][/quote] [quote] there's tons of ways to interpret the keys that isn't necessarily catholic. it's like eagle asks "are there any other interpretations" then hears them, and keeps asking without addressing the ones he hears, it's like in one ear and out the other.[/quote] Maybe because people listed interpretations but not evidence backed up interpretations. This goes back to my earlier debate with you on Apostolic Authority where you refused to give a evidence backed interpretation of keys and binding. Why should I give interpretations that are not backed up my attention? [quote]catholic encylopedia itself contradicts his notion of hte keys: QUOTE It is comparatively seldom that the Fathers, when speaking of the power of the keys, make any reference to the supremacy of St. Peter. When they deal with that question, they ordinarily appeal not to the gift of the keys but to his office as the rock QUOTE (1) In the Fathers the references to the promise of Matthew 16:19, are of frequent occurrence. Almost invariably the words of Christ are cited in proof of the Church's power to forgive sins. The application is a natural one, for the promise of the keys is immediately followed by the words: "Whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth", etc. [url="http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08631b.htm"]http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08631b.htm[/url][/quote] The above is a shortened quote from an article to make it appear as if it is contradicting Catholic teaching. It is in fact not. I would also note that the two sections quoted do not appear in the order quoted. Here is how it is really presented on the website of New Advent. We begin with the second portion of the quote of the website. [i](1) In the Fathers the references to the promise of Matthew 16:19, are of frequent occurrence. Almost invariably the words of Christ are cited in proof of the Church's power to forgive sins. The application is a natural one, for the promise of the keys is immediately followed by the words: "Whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth", etc.[/i] This is where the quoted part abruptly ends. [i]Moreover, the power to confer or to withhold forgiveness might well be viewed as the opening and shutting of the gates of heaven. This interpretation, however, restricts the sense somewhat too narrowly; for the remission of sins is but one of the various ways in which ecclesiastical authority is exercised. We have examples of this use of the term is such passages as August., "De Doctrina Christi", xvii, xviii: "Quid liberatius et misericordius facere potuit. . .nisi ut omnia donaret conversis. . .Has igitur claves dedit Ecclesiae suae ut quae solveret in terra soluta essent in coelo" (How could He [Christ] have shewn greater liberality and greater mercy. . .than by granting full forgiveness to those who should turn from their sins. . .He gave these keys to His Church, therefore, that whatever it should remit on earth should be remitted also in heaven) (P.L., XXIV, 25; cf. Hilary, "In Matt.", xvi, P.L., IX, 1010). [/i] Let's look at where the first part is quoted. [i]It is comparatively seldom that the Fathers, when speaking of the power of the keys, make any reference to the supremacy of St. Peter. When they deal with that question, they ordinarily appeal not to the gift of the keys but to his office as the rock[/i] This is where the first quoted part abruptly ends. [i]on which the Church is founded. In their references to the potestas clavium, they are usually intent on vindicating against the Montanist and Novatian heretics the power inherent in the Church to forgive. Thus St. Augustine in several passages declares that the authority to bind and loose was not a purely personal gift to St. Peter, but was conferred upon him as representing the Church. The whole Church, he urges, exercises the power of forgiving sins. This could not be had the gift been a personal one (tract. 1 in Joan., n. 12, P.L., XXXV, 1763; Serm. ccxcv, in P.L., XXXVIII, 1349). From these passages certain Protestant controversialists have drawn the curious conclusion that the power to forgive sins belongs not to the priesthood but to the collective body of Christians (see Cheetham in "Dict. Christ. Antiq.", s.v.). There is, of course, no suggestion of this meaning. St. Augustine merely signifies that the power to absolve was to be imparted through St. Peter to members of the Church's hierarchy throughout the world. [/i] And the contradiction dies. At the end of day you still have the office of Pope. [quote]binding and losing. if this person could bind and lose (the verse that's often said to refer to the pope, but then read completely shows opposite in fact), maybe what catholics think isn't necessarily what is true:[/quote] You did not show me anything to back this up in our last debate thread on Apostolic Authority and you have not shown me anything in this thread. I have nothing to respond to except you try to slyly quote a Catholic encyclopedia to make it appear as if it is contradicting Catholic teaching when it does not when you read it without skipping huge parts. [quote]matthew 18, binding and losing was given to all.[/quote] Evidence? I don't see any. [quote]now that the keys means the papal supremecy has been deconstructed. some plausible interpretations. peter was the first to confess faith. that means he'd be the leader in going to heaven, the first. the keys could just be a way of saying "binding and losing" and that it was referred as keys to peter does't negate it to anyone else... there's no reason it'd have to be. the keys could mean the way of faith, his confession, a christian's confession is the "key". none of this is rationalization either, it's all totally plausible once you accept tht the catholic interpretation isn't necessarily the right one.[/quote] The Catholic interpretation has a strong argument with evidence to back it up. You present no evidence and expect me and others to subscribe to vague interpretations that don't have a wing to fly on. Give the other interpretations wings and it may fly. Until then. There is nothing to say. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dairygirl4u2c Posted September 19, 2008 Share Posted September 19, 2008 (edited) only now do you respond to the catholic eyncyl even though ti's been shown to you repeatedly. i think this is an impicit admission on your part that you were being evasive, since you didn't address it before. not that now that you addressed it did you say anything logical. you act as if i was hiding something. what you quoted as extensions didn't have anything to do with contradicting my point about how keys historically doesn't mean what you say it does. the extended quote only says that it has to do with forgiving sins, not the power of infallibility. what exactly is your point? are you just trying to sound smart by pretending like i'm hiding something when i'm not? it's like smoke and mirrors but no substance. what exactly is your point in this extended quote? you never said, but acted like it's self evident, which it's not, and in fact could only show you have difficulty reading or are deceptive. [quote](1) In the Fathers the references to the promise of Matthew 16:19, are of frequent occurrence. Almost invariably the words of Christ are cited in proof of the Church's power to forgive sins. The application is a natural one, for the promise of the keys is immediately followed by the words: "Whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth", etc. This is where the quoted part abruptly ends. Moreover, the power to confer or to withhold forgiveness might well be viewed as the opening and shutting of the gates of heaven. This interpretation, however, restricts the sense somewhat too narrowly; for the remission of sins is but one of the various ways in which ecclesiastical authority is exercised. We have examples of this use of the term is such passages as August., "De Doctrina Christi", xvii, xviii: "Quid liberatius et misericordius facere potuit. . .nisi ut omnia donaret conversis. . .Has igitur claves dedit Ecclesiae suae ut quae solveret in terra soluta essent in coelo" (How could He [Christ] have shewn greater liberality and greater mercy. . .than by granting full forgiveness to those who should turn from their sins. . .He gave these keys to His Church, therefore, that whatever it should remit on earth should be remitted also in heaven) (P.L., XXIV, 25; cf. Hilary, "In Matt.", xvi, P.L., IX, 1010).[/quote] same with this quote. you post it, but really it simply goes on to say what keys really means,,,, ie forgiving sins, again my point all along. there's an important point that people debate whether augustine meant that all have that power, but as to the keys, which is the point of my thread, this debate is irrelvant. so what's your point? the extended quote just gave more detail ot what i was arguing all along. (i think there's more to that augustine debate than the catholic encyclopedia would suggest, but that again is beside the point) [quote]It is comparatively seldom that the Fathers, when speaking of the power of the keys, make any reference to the supremacy of St. Peter. When they deal with that question, they ordinarily appeal not to the gift of the keys but to his office as the rock This is where the first quoted part abruptly ends. on which the Church is founded. In their references to the potestas clavium, they are usually intent on vindicating against the Montanist and Novatian heretics the power inherent in the Church to forgive. Thus St. Augustine in several passages declares that the authority to bind and loose was not a purely personal gift to St. Peter, but was conferred upon him as representing the Church. The whole Church, he urges, exercises the power of forgiving sins. This could not be had the gift been a personal one (tract. 1 in Joan., n. 12, P.L., XXXV, 1763; Serm. ccxcv, in P.L., XXXVIII, 1349). From these passages certain Protestant controversialists have drawn the curious conclusion that the power to forgive sins belongs not to the priesthood but to the collective body of Christians (see Cheetham in "Dict. Christ. Antiq.", s.v.). There is, of course, no suggestion of this meaning. St. Augustine merely signifies that the power to absolve was to be imparted through St. Peter to members of the Church's hierarchy throughout the world.[/quote] you state that at the end of the day, there's the office of peter etc. that's true, as i acknnowledged in the quote, based on the rock. it's not based on the keys as you illogically argued in your last post. even the catholic encyclopedia suggests as much. you've yet to respond to it with anything other than substanceless pretense. also, i gave plenty of biblical arguments for alternatives to the catholic church. then i went into history of the catholic church. you ignored both of em. how can you hide from the history of the church? do you have something to hide? but that's the other thread. this thread is about the keys only, and you've yet to provide a coherent argument. Edited September 19, 2008 by dairygirl4u2c Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dairygirl4u2c Posted September 19, 2008 Share Posted September 19, 2008 (edited) if you were to argue the church fathers were pretty much wrong, then go for it. that would be an argument that's addressing hte point that the catholic encyclopedia itself contradicts your interprtation. of course, you'd have to argue why, which i doubt you could or would do. even louisvillefan, a strong catholic here, concedes the other possible interpreations of keys as not what you say. QUOTE several of the Fathers interpret this verse as Jesus referring to Peter's faith -- not Peter himself -- so that is a large reason why non-Catholics are comfortable with this interpretation. Edited September 19, 2008 by dairygirl4u2c Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eagle_eye222001 Posted September 20, 2008 Author Share Posted September 20, 2008 [quote name='dairygirl4u2c' post='1659096' date='Sep 19 2008, 12:54 PM'][/quote] [quote]if you were to argue the church fathers were pretty much wrong, then go for it. that would be an argument that's addressing hte point that the catholic encyclopedia itself contradicts your interpretation. of course, you'd have to argue why, which i doubt you could or would do.[/quote] Do you have those thoughts in context? Do you have scripture evidence to back your opinion up? Maybe Jesus was not making Peter Pope. Maybe this leader of the church does not exists and we just made it up. Would Jesus leave his Church on earth leaderless? What good is a group without leadership? How long do groups without leaders last? So there is an argument that keys is Peter's faith. Fine. Back it up. Read the entire passage I quoted though and tell me how your interpretation works better than mine does. And, find me other passages in the Bible that back your interpretation up. I have argued a point, and you have yet to provide a reasonable arguement against it. You find a couple church fathers statements and you think that's enough to back up your arguement. It's not. Matthew 16:18-19 [i]18 So I now say to you: You are Peter and on this rock I will build my church. And the gates of hell will never overpower it. 19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of Heaven: whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven; whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.'[/i] [quote]even louisvillefan, a strong catholic here, concedes the other possible interpreations of keys as not what you say.[/quote] He concedes other interpretations but I don't think he said how strong those interpretations are. [quote]several of the Fathers interpret this verse as Jesus referring to Peter's faith -- not Peter himself -- so that is a large reason why non-Catholics are comfortable with this interpretation.[/quote] Was Jesus referring to Peter's faith when he said the gates of hell will never overpower it? And when he said the binding thing? I am still waiting for your backed up interpretation and not the comments that seem to have been taken out of nowhere. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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