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Errors Of Protestant Bibles--got A List?


Thomist-in-Training

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Thomist-in-Training

Hey there, this summer I work with a girl who is really sweet but goes to a Protestant church that is so generic she doesn't know the Apostles' Creed, very "Bible-based." We talked for an hour or so the other day, and when she pulled a Bible off the library shelf to look something up, I told her "Hey! That's a Protestant bible; it's cheating if you use that to prove things." So she asked what was wrong about Protestant translations. At first I thought she was giving me a hard time, but she said, "No, I really am interested."

So, I know I have seen articles about the deliberate mistranslations in, for example, the King James Version. Do you guys know a good resource on this topic? Something clear and objective that she will at least look at?

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Farsight one

Do you know what version, specifically, she is using? There's even several versions of the King James "version" of the bible and different bibles have different errors.

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Thomist-in-Training

Good point. The one she pulled off the shelf was a Revised King James. I think an essay dealing with any version of the KJV would help to show the point, at least.

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Farsight one

Ah. Well lucky you. The KJV is the easiest to pick apart. Just keep in mind that you can't get even a little pushy. Anyone isn't going to like hearing that the book they've been using for years is inaccurate.

Most people who use the KJV assume that it hasn't been changed in the last 400 years. Simply pointing out that her KJV does not include the deuterocanon/apocrypha while the 1611 version did should at least open her up to questioning things.

Simply googling "kjv inaccuracy" will get you a LOT of websites. The issue here is not that there's not a lot of innacuracies - there are. The problem is that the only way to see these innacuracies for the most part is to compare the KJV to the Greek and Hebrew, which of course requires at least some comprehension of Greek and Hebrew.

There is a problem, though. Explain it to someone, and they generally do what I call "passive agreement" - which is to actually accept what you say as truth, but because they are not knowledgable on the subject, such acceptance fades quickly and they simply return to their original assertions.

Translating the word "pascha" as "Easter" is one such issue.

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You'd have to [i]double check for yourself[/i], but I believe in comparing the [b]douay rheims [/b]Catholic bible, there are the following:

- in Ephesians, the passage on marriage the Douay reads "sacrament" and the KJ uses "mystery" (when St. Paul writes near its end, 'I speak of a great sacrament').


Some general things I believe recalling, and they add up to many, many passages:

-the word "cup" is substituted for the original "chalice"

-the word "repent" is substituted for the original "pennance"

-"elders" or "presbetyrs" is used, not "priest" (this may be in James and Hebrewes [?])

- I believe a number of references to Our Lord's [b]Face[/b] are ommitted in modern bibles (it is possible I am wrong); but would be striking because of the devotion to the Holy Face of Jesus promoted by Pope Leo in the 19th century (and of course St. Therese and her whole family's known devotion herein...she who is referred to as 'the greatest saint of modern times')

-What about the omission of entire [b]books[/b] from the KJ? There's no Judith or Tobit, etc;

-In Malachai, the last book of the OT, I'm pretty sure the KJ does not use "oblation" or "sacrifice" but rather "praise" or some other word NOT denoting sacrificial victim; this'd be in the passage [b]prophesying the Catholic Mass[/b]...something like 'for from the rising of the sun to the setting there is sacrifice and clean oblation in every place...for I am great among the gentiles...'

-In Genesis chapter three, it's actually "she will crush" (when God tells the serpent about the seed which will crush his foul head)

-Look at Apocalypse as well...reaching into memory here, but the chapter end of 11 I think which going right into 12 about Our Lady's assumption, I think there are errors, perhaps a whole phrase dealing w/ something like the children of the woman who keep the commands of God and have the testimony of Jesus Christ...sorry so vague (and hopefully not but possible blatantly wrong, at least on this!)

-Apocalypse, chapters 2 & 3 I do not think "synagogue of satan" is used in the KJ

-In Luke, for sure there is no "Hail, full of grace" in those early chapters where Gabriel appears at the annunciation

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HisChildForever

Wow, I've never heard of this before! Sure, I knew there were different translations out there, but [b]deliberate[/b] alternations of Scripture? Don't most Protestants hang onto Revelation...don't they know that somewhere in there it says that anyone who alters the Word will be punished?

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johnnydigit

"Hail, [b]full of grace[/b]" not "Hail, [b]favored one[/b]" --Luke 1:28

[url="http://forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?p=3517766"]http://forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?p=3517766[/url]

Edited by johnnydigit
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