Katholikos Posted May 15, 2007 Share Posted May 15, 2007 I recently read a defense of the practice of calling priests "father," with which I was not familiar. It's 1 Timothy 5:1. The poster said that the original Greek commands that episcopoi (priests) be called father. Is this correct? Thanks! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Thy Geekdom Come Posted May 15, 2007 Share Posted May 15, 2007 Yes, the original Greek says that priests (presbyteroi) are to be considered as fathers (patera). However, there is some possible ambiguity, as the word for priests (which is usually meant in that way in the New Testament) can simply mean "old men," rather than priests, which seems to be indicated by the contrast following it, which is an exhortation to treat young men as brothers, old women as mothers, etc.. Since the word used for "young men" is not a term for an ordained position of ministry in the Church, one could make the argument that St. Paul's purpose was not in reference to the priesthood. Even stronger is the use of "old women" (presbyteras). To use presbyteroi exclusively as "priests" and insist that this verse protects the practice of calling them fathers seems to open the door to the question of exactly why St. Paul includes young men and also old women (especially using for them the feminine form of the noun used for priests). It seems too shaky to me to be used reliably in apologetics. However, the point can be made that St. Paul has no problem calling older men "fathers," so it can only follow that calling priests fathers is also perfectly Biblical. God bless, Raphael Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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