SJRod55 Posted February 20, 2007 Author Share Posted February 20, 2007 I believe the author was trying to state that the Catholic Church, unlike the Orthodox church had changed its 'rules' regarding the use of the exorcism. Unfortunately the author made some gramatical errors thus implying that the Orthodox and Catholic churches were one in the same. I do not believe he was actually meaning to state that. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Didymus Posted February 20, 2007 Share Posted February 20, 2007 I still think that's a sweet beard. somethings just weird about this whole case. But it's probably because we have nothing closer to a firsthand account; just articles by our good friends in the media. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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