N/A Gone Posted October 23, 2006 Share Posted October 23, 2006 In a simple form, how does this work? If Christ is the only way, How does someone who does not know christ saved, yet they do not know christ? I have an answer for this, but I want to make sure I am within the Church's teaching. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted October 23, 2006 Share Posted October 23, 2006 I think this is being discussed in the next thread - "anonymous christian" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
N/A Gone Posted October 23, 2006 Author Share Posted October 23, 2006 ironically both are started by me,. yet, I can explain the difference, this is jews only. Jews are the choosen people, the source of God's promise. In hebrews and in romans 9 there is special language about God bringing back the jews into His promise. Jews are still "saved" by something different. But what is that something. How does this work? Anonoymous christians are about all non-christians ala Lauterkeit but to what extent.. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted October 23, 2006 Share Posted October 23, 2006 thanks for explaining the difference Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
thessalonian Posted October 23, 2006 Share Posted October 23, 2006 All who are saved are saved by Grace. All grace was earned for us by Christ's death on the cross. Grace is not just God being nice but is true salve for our wounded condition. Now a Jew who is in error, not knowing he is in error because he has not been given the grace to know of his error still recieves grace. That grace illuminates his mind toward knowing their is a loving God and toward a moral life and many other things consistent with Christianity. As long as he has not rejected the grace he has been given, that would allow him to come to Christianity he may be saved. I don't really think it is different for the Jew or the Gentile or in some respect for the Catholic for that matter, though we are most certainly given the grace to go far beyond what the Jew or others are able to discern. We are judged at a higher standard because we have been given much. "To whom much has been given, much will be required". Blessings Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
N/A Gone Posted October 23, 2006 Author Share Posted October 23, 2006 see thes, that language is similar to the anonymous christian language or the clear/opaque argument. But in romans and hebrews there is strong language in the functionability of the jewish system. In romans there is stronger language that there is a different salvic way for the jews. i dunno..I might need to work thru it more. Romans 9 mostly, and some hebrews 5 in light of lev 16/21 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
thessalonian Posted October 23, 2006 Share Posted October 23, 2006 (edited) The only thing that might make it different is that the Jews have been given more than the pagan. They have the old testament scriptures. It is not a different way but a greater grace given. They have a head start on those who do not know God at all. There can only be one way of salvation, i.e. Jesus Christ. There of course is the difference between the OT jew and the NT Christian in that they looked forward to his comming and of course we look back. Hindsight is 20/20 and so we are held more accountable than the Jew of the OT who did not understand grace. Edited October 23, 2006 by thessalonian Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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