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God and Polygyny


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why did God permit the Old Testament Hebrews to practice polygyny? What does the Church say about present-day tribal societies that practice polygyny?

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CatholicMonarchist3

[quote name='Revprodeji' post='1056931' date='Sep 5 2006, 12:12 AM']
why did God permit the Old Testament Hebrews to practice polygyny? What does the Church say about present-day tribal societies that practice polygyny?
[/quote]
Because that was the Mosaic law I reckon. I think that's what it's called anyhoo. If not, do forgive me, I haven't slept yet. Remember, divorce was part of it too. Then Jesus brought us the "new" law :)
And I'd imagine the Church says those tribal folks are living in sin.

Edited by Alexwise the Hobbit
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I believe polygyny was only allowed in pre-mosaic-law periods of the bible (I could be wrong).

Adam and Eve began with what marriage was supposed to be like. Our fallen natures after their fall present problems, but God still wants us to be fertile and multiply. Therefore all of humanity fell into the old system of marriage. Judaism in the mosaic law onward began to rehabilitate this old system of marriage slightly... the Book of Genesis itself alludes to a system of marriage completely unherd of until Romans were converted to Christianity ("for this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and cling to his wife", this never happened in Jewish culture or any other pagan culture in the area... it only happened when neo-local families were formed with christians trying to avoid family-arranged marriages to pagan households). But of course it wasn't until Christianity until the institution of marriage was attempted to be salvaged altogether.

But to get back to the polgyny, God allowed it for the purpose of the propagation of the species. Marriage was damaged beyond repair by the actions of the first married couple. There was no sacred marriage, just necessary ordinary utilitarian couplings for the most part. That is why God did not forbid divorce or, for a certain period of time, polygyny... these things did not do anything against a sacred institution or anything, polygyny itself was a useful thing and divorce/remarriage could also be useful in some ways.

Christ not only redeemed marriage, He raised it up to the level of a sacrament. This began Christianity's final rehabilitation of a marriage system that was broken, a marriage system that was solely utilitarian for the society. This also sealed in stone the requirements of monogamy and permanence in marriage.

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[quote name='Revprodeji' post='1056931' date='Sep 4 2006, 11:12 PM']why did God permit the Old Testament Hebrews to practice polygyny? What does the Church say about present-day tribal societies that practice polygyny?[/quote]see below post for correct spelling
[quote name='phatcatholic' post='1057121' date='Sep 5 2006, 03:04 PM']why are people using an "n"? its polygaMy, right?[/quote]thank you!

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polygamy refers to having multiple spouses in a marriage

polygyny refers specifically to multiple wives

polyandry refers specifically to multiple husbands

there is no record of God permitting polyandry in the Bible, just polygyny :P:

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Fides_et_Ratio

Anyway, it's all pre-Mosaic Law. When divorce was permitted under Mosaic Law it seems the Israelites were not practicing polygyny, because divorce was permitted so that they would stop mistreating their first wife because they had married another, etc.

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[quote name='Aloysius' post='1057145' date='Sep 5 2006, 04:52 PM']
polygamy refers to having multiple spouses in a marriage

polygyny refers specifically to multiple wives

polyandry refers specifically to multiple husbands

there is no record of God permitting polyandry in the Bible, just polygyny :P:
[/quote]
i stand corrected.

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[quote name='Norseman82' post='1057330' date='Sep 5 2006, 09:37 PM']
I heard it was order to procreate as much as possible because there were so many war widows.
[/quote]

I heard the same thing since God said to be fruitfull and multiply.

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