MrsFrozen Posted December 22, 2003 Share Posted December 22, 2003 Today, my husband and I were discussing a girl we know who found out she was pregnant before she was married, and went to have an abortion. At the abortion clinic, they did an ultrasound and found that she had miscarried the baby, so an abortion was unnecessary. Is this still a mortal sin, since she went to the clinic with the intent of aborting the pregnancy? I don't know if it's relevant, but her views on abortion have not changed since then. We couldn't figure this out. I think that it is a mortal sin, because the only thing that stopped her was the fact that she had already miscarried. A situation with which we compared it was if a person plans to kill someone, and the day they go over to the victim's house, they're not home. So the only thing that stopped it from proceeding was that the victim happened to be away at that time. Is this still a sin? We're confused! Thank you for your help. God bless.. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winchester Posted December 23, 2003 Share Posted December 23, 2003 Tricky question. It was definitely morally the same as having the abortion. Morality does not give time off for missing the target. With morality, it's about the intent, so she is objectively guilty with the same gravity as one who had avtually procured an abortion. Is she culpable for the action? Only God, and to a lesser extent, the woman herself, knows for sure. Culpability for an act requires knowledge of its nature and the choice to commit the act with said knowledge. Culpability Article Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BLAZEr Posted December 23, 2003 Share Posted December 23, 2003 Really, this is something that you need to talk to a priest about. Is she culpable for killing her baby? No. She didn't actually kill it. However, did she sin by the intention to kill it. Yes. Is it the same sin? No. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cappie Posted December 24, 2003 Share Posted December 24, 2003 The sin is the same but the EFFECTS are obviously different. would say especially if she has not changed her mind and still would do the same thing given the opportunity. If that were not the case then you could presume she may have changed her mind and repented but as that does not seem to be the case then at least objectively I would say she would have committed a mortal sin. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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