son_of_angels Posted September 7, 2005 Share Posted September 7, 2005 (edited) So, let's discuss...Do we know perfection from imperfection, or do we know imperfection from perfection. The former is often an argument used by atheists against God, the former is an argument used for God, especially by Descartes. I have my own opinion on this, which I will share later, after some of you share, but I am interested in hearing your opinions on this, and what the philosophical/metaphysical/theological implications of this are. Edited September 7, 2005 by son_of_angels Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
son_of_angels Posted September 8, 2005 Author Share Posted September 8, 2005 I demand a shrubbery! (I mean an answer:)) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
philothea Posted September 8, 2005 Share Posted September 8, 2005 I'm still thinking. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Laudate_Dominum Posted September 8, 2005 Share Posted September 8, 2005 Imperfection has a parasitical nature, it is a privation. Therefore you can speak of knowing imperfection from perfection. This does not go both ways since perfection stands on its own. I can think of a perfect triangle and I know its a perfect triangle without comparing it to anything. I recognize an imperfect triangle in light of a perfect one (or the concept of a perfect one). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
son_of_angels Posted September 9, 2005 Author Share Posted September 9, 2005 So, is imperfection known by reason alone, or by something more subjective? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Laudate_Dominum Posted September 12, 2005 Share Posted September 12, 2005 [quote name='son_of_angels' date='Sep 9 2005, 11:52 AM']So, is imperfection known by reason alone, or by something more subjective? [right][snapback]716974[/snapback][/right] [/quote] It does not necessarily require an explicit mental act of comparison or whatever. Imperfection can be grasped by intuition. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
son_of_angels Posted September 13, 2005 Author Share Posted September 13, 2005 So when a leader, say Adolph Hitler, has an intuition to commit genocide, it is perfect? Intuition, I submit, is always interpreted subjectively, even if that intuition has an objective goal towards perfection, so only reason and/or bias can discern this perfection of yours. I promise, after you answer this question I'll give you my views. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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