at0m1c Posted June 23, 2005 Share Posted June 23, 2005 Does the Church make a distinction between the words 'Homosexual' and 'Gay'? What is the teaching behind this? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Technicoid Posted June 23, 2005 Share Posted June 23, 2005 [quote name='at0m1c' date='Jun 23 2005, 12:25 PM']Does the Church make a distinction between the words 'Homosexual' and 'Gay'? What is the teaching behind this?[/quote] The Church doesn't differentiate between these terms, primarily because it doesn't address the idiomatic aspects of specific languages. The term "homosexual" is technical and descriptive and can be translated unambiguously. "Gay" is an English idiom, a euphemism, and by nature, not as precise. Also, the term "homosexual" is not used in the same fashion in Church documents (or, at least, the CCC) as it is in mainstream media or by many English speakers. The Church uses it almost exclusively as an adjective. That is, a person is not [i]a[/i] homosexual. That person may [i]have[/i] homosexual tendencies, but he or she is not the sum total of those tendencies. This latter point is critical for understanding the Church's teaching on homosexuality. The Church condemns the sins of homosexual acts. The Church does not condemn people who have homosexual tendencies simply for having those tendencies. We all have sinful tendencies to overcome, particularly in the area of sexuality. In addition, we're all called to chastity. However, the form of that chastity varies depending on one's station in life. Married couples cannot simply use sex as a means for pleasure. That would be an unchaste use of the sexual capacity. Openness to the unitive and procreative aspects must be present. Likewise, single people are called to chastity, specifically abstinence, regardless of whether their tendencies are heterosexual or homosexual. For more information, see the [i]Catechism [/i]paragraphs 2357–2359. You might also check out [url="http://www.pureloveclub.com/"]Jason Evert's[/url] web site for a whole lot more information. Hope that helps. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apotheoun Posted June 23, 2005 Share Posted June 23, 2005 The following is an excerpt from a post I wrote for phatmass back in May: [quote][T]he Church teaches that the homosexual inclination "is a more or less strong tendency ordered toward an intrinsic moral evil," and so although the condition is not in itself a sin, it is not to be thought of as benign, morally neutral, or worse, as a good. Instead, the homosexual condition must be seen for what it is, i.e., a relative absence of the good in the gnomic will of the creature, and so no one is "homosexual." Sadly of course some human beings are afflicted with homosexual tendencies, but as the Magisterium teaches, those who experience these disordered desires are to strive to overcome them by the power of God's grace. As a consequence, no one must ever identify himself with a moral privation (i.e., an objective disorder of the mind and gnomic will), [i][b]and when discussing this issue with others it is vital that a Catholic avoid the politically correct terminology of modern secular culture[/b][/i].[/quote] For the full post click here: [url="http://www.geocities.com/apotheoun/phatmass"]The Disordered Nature of the Homosexual Inclination[/url] P.S. - I commend Technicoid for his excellent post. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted June 23, 2005 Share Posted June 23, 2005 hey apotheoun...............i like the new design for ur webpage :thumb: Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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