CatholicCrusader Posted November 9, 2004 Share Posted November 9, 2004 (edited) [quote name='popestpiusx' date='Nov 9 2004, 01:27 AM'] I'm having an identity crisis in this thread. 1)I am a staunch defender of the belief in Limbus Infantium (even for aborted and miscarried children, among the latter I number one of my own). 2)I am a staunch defender of baptism of desire and blood (properly defined of course). To many questions. To many discussions. I think I am tired of talking about this for now. I think I'll just leave. [/quote] By 'properly defined' do you mean 'implicit' desire, as well? ...and there should be no crisis, as even if you believe in a baptism of desire/blood, there is no way a person who has not reached the age of use could receive either; therefore, at least you are consistent (not necessarily right about BOB, BOD). Edited November 9, 2004 by CatholicCrusader Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicCrusader Posted November 9, 2004 Share Posted November 9, 2004 [quote name='qfnol31' date='Nov 8 2004, 11:18 PM'] Poor Catechesis means poor training. Ed. because I can't spell. [/QUOTE] Did you see this? [/quote] The verses don'tmake sense as you would like them to. "There is a baptism with which I must be baptized, and how great is my anguish until it is accomplished!" If Christ MUST be baptized, then you are saying He needed to be forgiven of sin (at least Original Sin). That simply is not what this "baptism" means. It is the baptism as spoken of by the Church Fathers. The baptism of blood is martyrdom, in the case of Christ, the highest form of all. "Jesus said to them: You do not know what you are asking. Can you drink the cup that I drink or be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?" Again, here, he is clearly talking about His martyrdom. That is what "baptism of blood" means: martydom. And never does he say that such is efficacious for salvation. In the Bible the only "baptism" referring to a martyrdom is that of Christ, Who needed not a forgiveness of sin. That is why it can be called such and not mean a literal Baptism. That is also why the Fathers number the Catholic martyrs as being baptized in blood. It simply means maryrdom. For example, in a certain work a Father may say: no one can be baptized more than once and then proceed to explain how someone was "baptized in blood" who had already yet been baptized with water, the Sacrament. How could someone have Baptism of Blood and Baptism of water when, as every Father and every Church document has taught since day one, has taught that NO ONE can be re-baptized. The point is that Baptism of Blood is not the same as Baptism of water. Water Baptism is efficacious for the forgiveness of Original Sin. Only a person who is a Catholic and is martyred can receive a "Baptism of Blood", which is not are-baptizing but rather a martyrdom that removes any temporal punishment he would have had to suffer in Purgatory. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest JeffCR07 Posted November 9, 2004 Share Posted November 9, 2004 CforC, could you please reply to my post? Also, popestpiusx, dont worry too much, it is always better to take time out to pray on a matter, rather than to continue to delve into intellectual uncertainty. Prayer allows us to give our burdens and troubles to Christ and helps us to put full faith in Him and His Church. - Your Brother In Christ, Jeff Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
popestpiusx Posted November 9, 2004 Share Posted November 9, 2004 [quote name='CatholicCrusader' date='Nov 9 2004, 12:25 PM'] By 'properly defined' do you mean 'implicit' desire, as well? ...and there should be no crisis, as even if you believe in a baptism of desire/blood, there is no way a person who has not reached the age of use could receive either; therefore, at least you are consistent (not necessarily right about BOB, BOD). [/quote] I know there is no internal conflict between the two. THe "crisis" (which was just a joke) was that I would have essentially been arguing with everyone else on one point or other. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
popestpiusx Posted November 9, 2004 Share Posted November 9, 2004 [quote name='JeffCR07' date='Nov 9 2004, 01:22 PM'] Also, popestpiusx, dont worry too much, it is always better to take time out to pray on a matter, rather than to continue to delve into intellectual uncertainty. [/quote] Thank you, and you are correct of course, but I was just joking, as I clarified for CC. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
qfnol31 Posted November 9, 2004 Share Posted November 9, 2004 [quote name='CatholicCrusader' date='Nov 9 2004, 10:34 AM'] Did you see this? [/QUOTE] The verses don'tmake sense as you would like them to. "There is a baptism with which I must be baptized, and how great is my anguish until it is accomplished!" If Christ MUST be baptized, then you are saying He needed to be forgiven of sin (at least Original Sin). That simply is not what this "baptism" means. It is the baptism as spoken of by the Church Fathers. The baptism of blood is martyrdom, in the case of Christ, the highest form of all. [/quote] I'm just quoting what He said in the Bible. He had to be Baptized. If it was Martyrdom, then so be it, but it's still "Baptized." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicforChrist Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 I just read this thread, and I have not posted on it, but I have seen people beginning posts with "CforC" and then addressing some point I apparently made previously in the debate. What is the cause of this? I have not posted here yet. Do you mean Catholic Crusader (CC?) instead of CforC? Thanks, God bless. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest JeffCR07 Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 yea, that was a type-o on my part, I appologize about that! CatholicCrusader, I was meaning to address those posts to you, and I'm sorry for any confusion that it created - Your Brother In Christ, Jeff Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicforChrist Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 Alright, that is what I figured. Thanks for the affirmation, Jeff. Proceed with the debates. God bless. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicCrusader Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 (edited) [quote name='qfnol31' date='Nov 9 2004, 01:31 PM']I'm just quoting what He said in the Bible. He had to be Baptized. If it was Martyrdom, then so be it, but it's still "Baptized." [/quote] Exactly... and the point is the "Baptism" to which He was addressing was His Repemptive Act. It is not a Baptism for all men as if it is a way to be forgiven Original Sin. The Baptism He underwent (the Crucifixion) was to redeem men; no one else can be baptized with that Baptism, as He said: "Can you be baptized with the baptism wherewith I am to be baptized?" Of course, the answer was: No. Christ is the One Who is Redeemer. Wherefore, the Baptism of Christ in reference to the verses quoted is the Act of Redeption He underwent and is not applicable to anyone save Christ Himself; moreover, it is not a Baptism for the forgiveness of Original Sin for the One who undergoes such, as Christ was free from all sin, and it is a Baptism that only Christ could be baptized with. *edit: That is for the Baptism referred to in the Bible. The Baptism of Blood signifying martyrdom is available to all who die for the Faith of Christ, the Catholic Church. That death, however, cannot bring about a forgiveness of Original Sin. Only one who is martyred having already received the waters of Baptism, can be saved. Edited November 11, 2004 by CatholicCrusader Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicCrusader Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 [quote name='JeffCR07' date='Nov 9 2004, 12:16 AM'] CforC, it seems to me that this discussion has been fairly presumptuous on all parts. Baptism of Blood or Desire has been taught on all levels of the Magisterium and has been taught in multiple catechisms, this we know. We also know how Baptism of Blood or Desire are salvific for someone who has attained the age of reason. What we do [i]not[/i] know is how Baptism of Blood or Desire work with regards to those who have yet to attain the age of reason. As such, we must admit simply that [i]we do not know[/i]. Retaining this mystery in the faith - rather than attempting to establish a certainty that cannot be established - causes us to hope and pray for the mercy of God upon those souls without losing the stark and very real understanding of baptism's necessity. Ultimately, we are humbled before that which only God knows, and, in our humility, are moved to piety, which manifests itself in hopeful prayer. Thus we pray for the souls of the unborn and the victims of abortion ceaselessly. - Your Brother In Christ, Jeff [/quote] Jeff, I assume you want me to address this? First, "We also know how Baptism of Blood or Desire are salvific for someone who has attained the age of reason." We don't know that... and I don't believe that, but I will grant it to you for the purpose of debate--I am not saying that it is true merely that even if it is, an infant cannot have a Baptism of desire/blood. "What we do [i]not[/i] know is how Baptism of Blood or Desire work with regards to those who have yet to attain the age of reason. As such, we must admit simply that [i]we do not know[/i]." On the contrary, if the Church teaches that: one MUST be baptized with water to be saved, then you must hold that. IF the Church made exceptions, then those exceptions and THOSE ALONE can be considered true. So, for example, if the Church (again only for the sake of argument) says that Baptism of Blood/Desire suffices for one who has reached the age of reason, then we say: OK, but only for those who have reached the age of reason. You seem to overlook the fact that it has been infallibly declared literally dozens upon dozens of times that Baptism is necessary for salvation. WE KNOW THAT. We CAN say we know that. We MUST NOT say "we do not know". So, if a person falls into a category that is not an "exception", then we say with as much certainty as Christ did when He declared Himself infallibly that man must be baptized in St. John chapter III: "That person will surely never reach Heaven." If the Church makes an exception later, then we can say: the Church has excused this person. Until then (assuming it is possible to even have exceptions), we must say: all those who are not baptized cannot be saved except where the Church has excused (again, as if the Church actually has). So, since the Church has not excused the unbaptized before the age of reason, we MUST say: they "cannot enter into the Kingdom of Heaven" (Christ). "Thus we pray for the souls of the unborn and the victims of abortion ceaselessly." To do so would be illogical; it would be similar to praying for Judas... at least he lived when Baptism was not a necessity, and it is much more possible, even, for him to have been saved, as he could have had a perfect act of contrition, and he was not impeded by the necessity for a Sacrament that he had not ability to receive. The only reason Judas may become more illogical would be the words of Christ: "It would be better had he never been born". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
qfnol31 Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 CatholicCrusader, After learning my lesson before I'm not going to make to many judgements, but the point of my post is that you tried to counter what the Catechism said: [quote]Moreover, take the quote: "1225 In his Passover Christ opened to all men the fountain of Baptism. He had already spoken of his Passion, which he was about to suffer in Jerusalem, as a "Baptism" with which he had to be baptized." The Baptism with which HE HAD TO BE BAPTIZED??? Christ had to be baptized now? That would fail considerably if you are trying to say that martyrdom is a Baptism sufficient and equal to water. Also, if Christ was already baptized with water, then why did he get baptized in Blood again? It seems to me to follow the same usage of "Baptism of Blood" as the Fathers (meaning simply martyrdom).[/quote] I was just saying that in the Catechism, the answer is straight out of the Bible. I'm just saying that the Catechism isn't wrong, as you seem to be arguing (well, not in this case, but that's a different story). My whole point is that the Bible verses I gave you is where Jesus says He has to be Baptized. Now why, I don't know, and I'm not about to try to guess. I think that's what I'm trying to argue, I'm just quoting the Catechism and the Bible in this case. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicCrusader Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 [quote name='qfnol31' date='Nov 11 2004, 03:35 PM'] CatholicCrusader, After learning my lesson before I'm not going to make to many judgements, but the point of my post is that you tried to counter what the Catechism said: I was just saying that in the Catechism, the answer is straight out of the Bible. I'm just saying that the Catechism isn't wrong, as you seem to be arguing (well, not in this case, but that's a different story). My whole point is that the Bible verses I gave you is where Jesus says He has to be Baptized. Now why, I don't know, and I'm not about to try to guess. I think that's what I'm trying to argue, I'm just quoting the Catechism and the Bible in this case. [/quote] Whichever other post it is that we were talking about this (I think it is called un-baptized or something), I wrote in my most recent post about what He meant by such a Baptism. I wasn't saying He didn't need to be baptized as He was referring to it, but I was saying that such a comment was not a teaching on Baptism of Blood. See my post there for more. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
qfnol31 Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 But the Magisterium said it was, at least that's what they hold in the Catechism. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatholicCrusader Posted November 11, 2004 Share Posted November 11, 2004 [quote name='qfnol31' date='Nov 11 2004, 03:47 PM'] But the Magisterium said it was, at least that's what they hold in the Catechism. [/quote] I think that you are misreading what the Catechism is trying to say... but if not, the Catechism is not an infallible or binding document (that is why it has been corrected in over 100 different places)... maybe this area will be next to go to be edited. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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