goldenchild17 Posted October 18, 2004 Author Share Posted October 18, 2004 Yep, looks like I'm stuck too. I checked all the lexicons I could find. None of them, seemed to say wheat... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted October 18, 2004 Share Posted October 18, 2004 I posted the question to a theologian, I'll let you know what he says. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted October 18, 2004 Share Posted October 18, 2004 awesome, thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted October 19, 2004 Share Posted October 19, 2004 Dear Cheryl, There is no mention in Scripture of the bread which is to be used for the Passover bread. But the Tradition of the Church states that it was wheaten bread. Those who are truly Catholic follow the Church's teaching - which comes from "sacred Tradition and sacred Scripture" as understood by the Magisterium. The earliest records of the Eucharist show that it was always wheat bread - and that this came directly from the Apostolic Tradition. If Our Lord had used Barley bread, how in the world could the Apostles have come to teach the Church to use wheat bread? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted October 19, 2004 Share Posted October 19, 2004 well, i think the question tho is why did the Apostles teach the Church to use wheat bread when the custom of the Jews called for barley? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goldenchild17 Posted October 19, 2004 Author Share Posted October 19, 2004 Yeah, but what are the earliest records that show what must be used? That would help. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goldenchild17 Posted October 21, 2004 Author Share Posted October 21, 2004 Another question. A catholic I know on another board said that the GIRM says that it is equally okay to recieve in either the hand or by mouth. Is this true? Or is there something that says otherwise? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted October 21, 2004 Share Posted October 21, 2004 well, i dunno if its in the GIRM or not, but i do know that it is permissable to receive both in the hand or on the tongue Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goldenchild17 Posted October 21, 2004 Author Share Posted October 21, 2004 Okay, I wasn't sure. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apotheoun Posted November 5, 2004 Share Posted November 5, 2004 [quote name='goldenchild17' date='Oct 14 2004, 05:50 PM'] Dealing with an interesting aspect in which I have no idea where to start. She brings up our practice of requiring that the host is made of unleavened wheat. She doesn't question the unleavened part, so far as I know, but the wheat part. She read this stuff and thinks we should be using barley if we claim to follow as close as possible the last supper. [/quote] During the Passover Ashkenazi Jews are not allowed to eat any one of the following five grains: barley, oats, rye, spelt and wheat; the only exception to this custom is in connection with the making of the matzah for the Seder Meal, which can be made from any one of the five grains listed above. God bless, Todd Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goldenchild17 Posted November 7, 2004 Author Share Posted November 7, 2004 Thanks. I don't understand the connection... Explain you're point please. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted November 8, 2004 Share Posted November 8, 2004 [quote name='phatcatholic' date='Oct 19 2004, 12:29 AM'] well, i think the question tho is why did the Apostles teach the Church to use wheat bread when the custom of the Jews called for barley? [/quote] Because the Apostles were there and we are not. Apostolic Tradition says wheat bread so that is what we use. I am not trying to be smart, it is simply the answer. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted November 8, 2004 Share Posted November 8, 2004 [quote name='cmotherofpirl' date='Nov 7 2004, 08:54 PM'] Because the Apostles were there and we are not. Apostolic Tradition says wheat bread so that is what we use. I am not trying to be smart, it is simply the answer. [/quote] i know what you mean. i guess i was just hoping for an answer that didn't depend on the authority of the Church, something non-Catholics would accept Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goldenchild17 Posted November 8, 2004 Author Share Posted November 8, 2004 Same here. I don't really have a problem with it. But I'd like to be able to have something a bit more concrete when talking with others. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted November 8, 2004 Share Posted November 8, 2004 Guys the only authorities back then WERE the Church Fathers Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now