Maddalena Posted August 10, 2004 Share Posted August 10, 2004 (edited) This may sound like a stupid question (I've only been Catholic for seven years, and I just SORT OF RECENTLY got to where I wanted to be a better Catholic, so if I should already know this, I'm sorry!), and I'm probably asking this in the wrong area. o_o I just was wondering..... A man anointed David's head saying that he'd be a king. St. Mary Magdalene anointed Jesus head (who is the king of heaven), so was that fulfilling scripture? Or do those situations have nothing to do with each other? Thanks. Edited August 10, 2004 by Maddalena Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cmotherofpirl Posted August 10, 2004 Share Posted August 10, 2004 Nope you are right. Davids anointing pre-figured the anointing of Jesus. Many things in the New Testament are prefigured by those things in the Old. Melchizadek prefigures Christ as well. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MichaelFilo Posted August 10, 2004 Share Posted August 10, 2004 I'll tell you what I know. Jesus was king, becaues he was of the Davidic line. He was King of the Jews, because he was the king the jews were looking for. A little more detail into this, and we can find the proof that the Magestritum is the way it is supposed to be. God bless, Mikey Postcriptum, The other guys will totally give a better explanation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted August 10, 2004 Share Posted August 10, 2004 [quote name='Maddalena' date='Aug 10 2004, 04:08 PM'] This may sound like a stupid question (I've only been Catholic for seven years, and I just SORT OF RECENTLY got to where I wanted to be a better Catholic, so if I should already know this, I'm sorry!), and I'm probably asking this in the wrong area. o_o I just was wondering..... A man anointed David's head saying that he'd be a king. St. Mary Magdalene anointed Jesus head (who is the king of heaven), so was that fulfilling scripture? Or do those situations have nothing to do with each other? Thanks. [/quote] also note that "Christ" means "Annointed." Jesus' mere existence as the Son of God fulfills the prophetic quality of the anointing of David. actually, this prophecy is fulfilled for all time and since the very beginning, not just when Mary Magdalene anointed Him w/ oils. He is the "Christ" and the "Annoined" b/c He is of the Father, who begot the Son outside the realm of time. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phatcatholic Posted August 10, 2004 Share Posted August 10, 2004 this information is also helpful, from [url="http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08374x.htm"][b]Origin of the Name of Jesus Christ[/b][/url]: [quote]The word Christ, Christos, the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word Messias, means "anointed." According to the Old Law, priests (Exodus 29:29; Leviticus 4:3), kings (I Kings 10:1; 24:7), and prophets (Isaias 61:1) were supposed to be anointed for their respective offices; now, the Christ, or the Messias, combined this threefold dignity in His Person. It is not surprising, therefore, that for centuries the Jews had referred to their expected Deliverer as "the Anointed"; perhaps this designation alludes to Isaias 61:1, and Daniel 9:24-26, or even to Psalms 2:2; 19:7; 44:8. Thus the term Christ or Messias was a title rather than a proper name: "Non proprium nomen est, sed nuncupatio potestatis et regni", says Lactantius (Inst. Div., IV, vii). The Evangelists recognize the same truth; excepting Matthew 1:1, 18; Mark 1:1; John 1:17; 17:3; 9:22; Mark 9:40; Luke 2:11; 22:2, the word Christ is always preceded by the article. Only after the Resurrection did the title gradually pass into a proper name, and the expression Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus became only one designation. But at this stage the Greeks and Romans understood little or nothing about the import of the word anointed; to them it did not convey any sacred conception. Hence they substituted Chrestus, or "excellent", for Christians or "anointed", and Chrestians instead of "Christians." There may be an allusion to this practice in I Peter 2:3; hoti chrestos ho kyrios, which is rendered "that the Lord is sweet." Justin Martyr (Apol., I, 4), Clement of Alexandria (Strom., II, iv, 18), Tertullian (Adv. Gentes, II), and Lactantius (Int. Div., IV, vii, 5), as well as St. Jerome (In Gal., V, 22), are acquainted with the pagan substitution of Chrestes for Christus, and are careful to explain the new term in a favourable sense. The pagans made little or no effort to learn anything accurate about Christ and the Christians; Suetonius, for instance, ascribes the expulsion of the Jews from Rome under Claudius to the constant instigation of sedition by Chrestus, whom he conceives as acting in Rome the part of a leader of insurgents. The use of the definite article before the word Christ and its gradual development into a proper name show the Christians identified the bearer with the promised Messias of the Jews. He combined in His person the offices of prophet (John 6:14; Matthew 13:57; Luke 13:33; 24:19) of king (Luke 23:2; Acts 17:7; I Corinthians 15:24; Apocalypse 15:3),and of priest (Hebrew 2:17; etc.); he fulfilled all the Messianic predictions in a fuller and a higher sense than had been given them by the teachers of the Synagogue.[/quote] pax christi, phatcatholic Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RandomProddy Posted August 10, 2004 Share Posted August 10, 2004 Also for scripture reference, see Matt. i, I --> XVI. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Maddalena Posted August 11, 2004 Author Share Posted August 11, 2004 Ah, thanks for answering, y'all. I don't know why but it had just popped into my head about Jesus and David. o_o Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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