Was Mary Exempt From Personal Sin?

[flip]

i know that Mary was excused and protected from original sin. Was she also exempt from personal sin, after the birth of Christ? I heard somewehere that she still could have had personal sin... is this true?

again, can someone give the reason why Mary needed a Savior if she was in fact toally sinless? I need some better apologetics...

[cappie]

Catholics believe that Mary was concieved without Original Sin. It is because of the effects of Original sin that we comit personal sin. So eventhough we are baptised and cleansed of original sin the effects of sin remain with us. In Mary's case because she was concieved without original sin then you could say that she had no effects of this original sin. However it is possible at least in theory that Mary may have comitted the sin of pride, I am not saying that she did, but the Angels did and they did not commit original sin so that it is possible theologically speaking. From the liturgy of the church one of the titles of Mary is the "sinless Virgin Mary" so I would go for the fact that she did not commit sin.

Mary did need a Saviour eventhough. The merits of the saving death and resurrection were applied to Mary when she was concieved because God can operate outside human space and time.Duns Scotus gives the theological key to understand the mystery, affirming that Mary was preserved from original sin in view of the merits of Christ.

The sense of the faithful, the liturgy and theology finally receive the confirmation of the magisterium of the Church which, following situations of different kinds, arrives at the definition of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception by Pius IX on December 8, 1854, with the bull "Ineffabilis Deus."