pinstripes Posted July 24, 2004 Share Posted July 24, 2004 if someone gets drunk and commits a sin they wouldn't have done if they were sober, is the sin that they were drunk, or are both actions a sin? say, if someone had sex while they were drunk, which one is their fault, assuming they knew full well what they would be doing if they had been sober??? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cappie Posted July 27, 2004 Share Posted July 27, 2004 Glottony is the inordinate use of food or drink. Intemperance in drinking which has as its immediate effect the loss of the use of reason is a graver sin than immoderation in eating. Intoxication that results in a partial loss of reason is a venial sin. It may be a mortal sin because of scandal, injury to health, harm to one's friends or family etc. Intoxication that ends in complete loss of reason is a mortal sin if brought on without sufficient reason. Complete loss of reason is presumed in him or her who can no longer distinguish good from bad, or if after drunkeness has passed, one cannot remember what one has said or did while under the influence, or if one does a thing which you would never have done when sober. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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