TheLordsSouljah Posted August 21, 2017 Share Posted August 21, 2017 A question that's been plaguing me, not sure if it's true or not: Someone once told me that if a priest confesses that they had been engaged in child abuse, the confessor had to report it (to their bishop?) because it was a priest who had committed it, and that this type of circumstance is the only exception to the rule in the seal of confession. Is this true? Cause everyone in Melbourne at the moment is going mad calling + Hart a hypocrite and it hurts to see it... I'm keen to know the truth in this matter as it could turn some tides, but I don't want to spread a falsehood unintentionally. Help. TLS Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cappie Posted September 6, 2017 Share Posted September 6, 2017 Can. 983 §1. The sacramental seal is inviolable; therefore it is absolutely forbidden for a confessor to betray in any way a penitent in words or in any manner and for any reason. §2. The interpreter, if there is one, and all others who in any way have knowledge of sins from confession are also obliged to observe secrecy. Can. 984 §1. A confessor is prohibited completely from using knowledge acquired from confession to the detriment of the penitent even when any danger of revelation is excluded. §2. A person who has been placed in authority cannot use in any manner for external governance the knowledge about sins which he has received in confession at any time. So the answer is no http://canonlawmadeeasy.com/2008/12/04/can-a-priest-ever-reveal-what-is-said-in-confession/ Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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