Guest Kateri89 Posted May 22, 2015 Share Posted May 22, 2015 Obviously we all know the church doesn't condone the use of contraceptives including condoms. I'm sure this is a basic question that's been asked before, but what if a man or woman who is already married contracts HIV (from an accidental needle stick for example)? Is it morally worse to use condoms thereby significantly diminishing the chance of pregnancy if it increases your chances of protecting your spouse from contracting the disease? In reading online documents it's all about practicing abstinence outside of marriage but is the married couple supposed to practice total abstinence? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Basilisa Marie Posted June 2, 2015 Share Posted June 2, 2015 That's something that a lot of theologians will debate, because the Church doesn't have a clean answer for it (as with many cases where evils are involved). I've seen some argue that it's morally licit because you're not intending the contraceptive aspects of the condom, you're only intending to prevent the spread of disease. Other theologians would say that you can't separate the contraceptive purpose from the condom itself, so it'd be morally illicit to use one. Both are solid answers, in my opinion, so my answer would be that it would be something the couple would have to carefully and prayerfully discern with the help of a good spiritual director. What they decide to do might not be the same as another couple in the same situation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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