PhuturePriest Posted April 21, 2015 Share Posted April 21, 2015 Sorry in my example, I was taling about the finding in the temple. Jesus as a young kid could have easily started ministry even younger. He could have become a priest and not a carpenter. He had the ability and knowledge. The finding in the temple happened when Jesus was 12. Scripture explicitly says so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NadaTeTurbe Posted April 21, 2015 Share Posted April 21, 2015 In order to be properly married, you have to consummate the marriage. Without having sex the marriage isn't done properly. Consider the following: "A marriage (where they had sex) can be dissolved by no human power and by no cause, except death. Can. 1142 For a just cause, the Roman Pontiff can dissolve a non-consummated marriage between baptized persons or between a baptized party and a non-baptized party at the request of both parties or of one of them, even if the other party is unwilling." (So a non-consummated marriage isn't binding like a real marriage and can be dispensed by a human.) Some marriages start out the usual way and then later move into a Josephite marriage for various reasons, usually to grow in holiness, and that's ok. (Not common but it can happen, I think St Maximilian Kolbe parents did that after having four children and *possibly* St Therese's parents, but I'm not certain.) theory : if the man or the woman can't have physical relationship because of physical disease, and that the two fiancées know it, can they still get married ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
veritasluxmea Posted April 21, 2015 Share Posted April 21, 2015 theory : if the man or the woman can't have physical relationship because of physical disease, and that the two fiancées know it, can they still get married ? I'm assuming you mean they have a problem or disease that makes them physically unable to have sex (not a disease like HIV)? If so, not really, no. http://www.catholic.com/blog/trent-horn/why-the-church-cannot-marry-the-impotent Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NadaTeTurbe Posted April 21, 2015 Share Posted April 21, 2015 Yes. The exemple that I have in mind is a women from my parish who have had a terrible excision, she told us she can not have sex, but still, she is married (her husband accepted abstinence because he loves her). Now I wonder why our priest married her if it's forbidden. I find the position of the church very sad. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Archaeology cat Posted April 21, 2015 Share Posted April 21, 2015 In order to be properly married, you have to consummate the marriage. Without having sex the marriage isn't done properly. Consider the following: "A marriage (where they had sex) can be dissolved by no human power and by no cause, except death. Can. 1142 For a just cause, the Roman Pontiff can dissolve a non-consummated marriage between baptized persons or between a baptized party and a non-baptized party at the request of both parties or of one of them, even if the other party is unwilling." (So a non-consummated marriage isn't binding like a real marriage and can be dispensed by a human.) Some marriages start out the usual way and then later move into a Josephite marriage for various reasons, usually to grow in holiness, and that's ok. (Not common but it can happen, I think St Maximilian Kolbe parents did that after having four children and *possibly* St Therese's parents, but I'm not certain.) Bl Louis & Zélie Martin (St Thérese's parents) started out with a Josephite marriage but then their confessor instructed them to consummate, so they did. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MarysLittleFlower Posted April 25, 2015 Share Posted April 25, 2015 In order to be properly married, you have to consummate the marriage. Without having sex the marriage isn't done properly. Consider the following: "A marriage (where they had sex) can be dissolved by no human power and by no cause, except death. Can. 1142 For a just cause, the Roman Pontiff can dissolve a non-consummated marriage between baptized persons or between a baptized party and a non-baptized party at the request of both parties or of one of them, even if the other party is unwilling." (So a non-consummated marriage isn't binding like a real marriage and can be dispensed by a human.) Some marriages start out the usual way and then later move into a Josephite marriage for various reasons, usually to grow in holiness, and that's ok. (Not common but it can happen, I think St Maximilian Kolbe parents did that after having four children and *possibly* St Therese's parents, but I'm not certain.) I'm confused now about the Church's teaching... I read that it's enough for there to be a giving of rights to consummation, rather than intent to actually use the rights. Because Our Lady and St Joseph had a valid marriage. Anyone know? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Luigi Posted April 26, 2015 Share Posted April 26, 2015 In answer to the original question, a reading from St. Peter, from the Feast of St. Mark (25 April): Reading 1 1 Pt 5:5b-14 Beloved: Clothe yourselves with humilityin your dealings with one another, for:God opposes the proudbut bestows favor on the humble.So humble yourselves under the mighty hand of God,that he may exalt you in due time. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BarbTherese Posted April 26, 2015 Share Posted April 26, 2015 I'm confused now about the Church's teaching... I read that it's enough for there to be a giving of rights to consummation, rather than intent to actually use the rights. Because Our Lady and St Joseph had a valid marriage. Anyone know? Did a bit of research - I found it quite clear on the Church's position from three reliable sites. At least the first two are for sure to my knowledge, not too sure about the third: http://jimmyakin.com/2005/07/marys_marriage.html (Jimmy Aiken - Apologist Catholic Answers) lhttp://catholicexchange.com/a-meditation-on-%E2%80%98josephite%E2%80%99-marriage(Catholic Exchange - Excellent 'references' on Catholic Culture site review) http://catholic.nowealthbutlife.com/valid-consummated/ (including this site because it seems to uphold Catholic Teaching on the subject and answers some fairly logical type of questions) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BarbTherese Posted April 26, 2015 Share Posted April 26, 2015 (edited) What is regarded as important in socially cultural terms is not what is regarded as important in spiritual terms. Hence Mary may not have been important in socially cultural terms but was of the most highest importance (second to her son, Jesus) in spiritual terms (i.e. her virtues). Her social status in her lifetime was of no consequence. In fact, her social status in her times should be telling us something unique about holiness - while one can be very rich and highly socially important and still attain holiness. Edited April 26, 2015 by BarbaraTherese Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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