How do Catholics interpret the Torah, Matthew 5:17-19?

[Mike Miller]

As a messianic Jew, I obviously highly value the continuing validity of the Torah, especially in light of Matthew 5:17-19:

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."

How is that interpreted from a Catholic point of view, especially the part about "whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven" and "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them"?

[Gabriela]

I, too, am a convert to Catholicism from Judaism (though I do not identify as a "Messianic Jew" or "Hebrew Catholic").

As I'm sure you know, there is heated debate among non-Jewish Christians and Jewish Christians about whether Jewish Christians are still obligated to observe the Mosaic Law.

We must make a distinction here: There is ritual Mosaic Law, and moral Mosaic Law. Those who argue that Jewish Christians are still bound by ritual Mosaic Law fail to consider that this portion of the Law was established to ensure that the Jewish people retained ritual purity for the sake of offering clean sacrifice in the Temple. With the advent of Christ, the Temple service was replaced by Christ's own sacrifice of Himself. So, the ritual portion of the Mosaic Law was given as a way of preparing the Jewish people for the reception of Christ, the ultimate sacrifice. This is what the biblical passage you cite means when Christ says that He does not abolish the Law, but fulfill it.

It's important here also to consider the New Testament writings as a whole. For example, we have further evidence that the above explanation is what Christ meant in Acts 10, where God declares to Peter that all foods are now made clean—even for Jews like Peter. Kosher laws are part of the ritual Mosaic Law, and so Christ's replacement of the Temple sacrifice with His own sacrifice makes it no longer necessary to observe kashrut, because His sacrifice is already perfect and complete. (Note, in Acts 10:15, the reference to "what God has cleansed".)

On the other hand, the moral Mosaic Law is still binding upon all. This, too, however, Christ has fulfilled. This you can see if you continue reading beyond Matthew 5:19 to Christ's proclamations on murder/anger, adultery, divorce, oaths, retaliation, and loving one's enemies. Indeed, all of these moral issues addressed subsequent to Christ's declaration that He has not come to abolish but to fulfill the Law suggest that He is raising the moral standard from strictly observing legal precepts to living a law of love.

You ask specifically how to interpret the passage: "whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven." I reiterate: Keep reading. In the subsequent passages on murder/anger, adultery, divorce, etc., it is clear that Christ is doing the opposite of "relaxing" the Law. He is making it harder, because He is transforming it from an external law to a law of the heart.

In my experience, those who argue that Jewish Christians are still bound by ritual Mosaic Law fail to consider the historical continuity of the two Covenants. They believe that there is one Law for Jews and another for Christians, and anyone who is both must observe both. In truth, however, the ritual Mosaic Law was a "preparatory (Temple-relevant) Law" that paved the way for the one, final sacrifice. Once that sacrifice had been made, the ritual law that kept Jews ritually pure for Temple sacrifice was no longer needed.

There arises then the question: If it is not obligatory for Jewish Christians to observe the ritual Mosaic Law, is it at least permissible? Here two things ought to be considered (IMO): the unity of the Body of Christ and the intention of the individual who wishes to observe ritual Mosaic Law. As regards the unity of the Body, we must remember the words of Paul in Galatians 3:28: "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus."

Of course, within the Body of Christ, we have many cultural differences. Thus, if a person wishes to observe the ritual Mosaic Law as an expression of their Jewish culture/nationality, I cannot see an objection to this. But it's important to examine one's intentions for observing this Law closely, because if the real intent is a nagging sense of guilt that the ritual Law is still obligatory, that is a problem of catechesis and faith that needs to be resolved. Or if the intent is to set oneself above one's non-Jewish brothers and sisters in the Body as "first" or "more important" or somehow "more authentically Christian", then that is divisive.