MitchWitts Posted August 20, 2013 Share Posted August 20, 2013 (edited) I'm wonder when gluttony becomes a venial sin, as I think I understand when it is mortal, Aquinas seems to suggest that any amount of food not seen as necessary is at least venally sinful, He writes (Summa II ii q 148 a 1) Reply to Objection 2. As stated above, the vice of gluttony does not regard the substance of food, but in the desire thereof not being regulated by reason. Wherefore if a man exceed in quantity of food, not from desire of food, but through deeming it necessary to him, this pertains, not to gluttony, but to some kind of inexperience. It is a case of gluttony only when a man knowingly exceeds the measure in eating, from a desire for the pleasures of the palate. Does that mean anything not seen as necessary for survival is sinful? But I know, or at least believe that I could survive off a black fast for a long time, is sinful that I don't? Should I ever uses spices of any sort while eating, as they are never necessary? Edited August 20, 2013 by MitchWitts Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Theoketos Posted August 16, 2014 Share Posted August 16, 2014 I think you misunderstand the distinction the Dumb Ox is making here. Gluttony is when a man knowingly eats or drinks to much. If you are unaware of your limits and accidently eat too much, this is not a sin. Using spices is not sinful. Eating delicious food, because it is soooooooooo gooooood and delightful despite the fact that you know you are full, that is a waste of food, and disordered amount of food taken in, etc, and sinful. The Angelic Doctor is said by the Franciscans to have been a large fellow. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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