Help: Question On Mary's Perpetual Virginity

[jazzytakara]

I recently came across a few Protestant blogs/arguments against Mary's perpetual virginity that use the following evidence and explanation:

 

 Luke 1:57 "Now Elizabeth's full time of being delivered was come, and she brought fourth a son."  (Referring to John the Baptist)

 Luke 2:7 "And she brought fourth her firstborn son, ..." (Referring to Jesus)

 

The argument has it that since it was known that John was Elizabeth's only child, Luke described his birth using 'a son' thus showing he was the only son. However, when describing Jesus's birth, Luke described him as Mary's firstborn son, thus inferring that He was the firstborn of siblings. 

 

Now I know the significance of what being a firstborn son meant within the Jewish culture at the time; however, these protestants argue that since John was not described the same way as Jesus, it negates the claim that Jesus was called firstborn as all firstborn children (regardless of potential siblings) would be called firstborn. The argument continues with scripture references to instances where Jesus is described as God's only son (thus showing that God had no other sons) and since the Bible describes Jesus's relation to Mary as being her firstborn son and Jesus's relation to God as being His only son, these protestants argue that it is proof that Mary had other children following Jesus's birth. If Luke wanted to convey that Jesus was Mary's only son, he would have written 'a son; or 'her only son'. And if Luke wanted to convey that all firstborn children regardless of having siblings or being an only child, Luke would have described John as being a firstborn son as well.

 

This so far is the only protestant argument I have found that does not have a catholic rebuttal that defeats the argument. Could anyone help me understand the truth of Mary's perpetual virginity in association with this particular argument. Its a strong argument and being a new Catholic who is still learning and getting to know Mary's role it would be really helpful for me to have an answer to this, not only for myself, but also for the protestants that have legitimately presented this argument to me. I am really confused....

[HisChildForever]

I believe "firstborn" was used to [s]emphasis[/s]emphasize Christ's special status. In other words, He was not just a son, He was (well, is) THE Son.

Edited July 13, 2013 by HisChildForever

[jazzytakara]

I believe "firstborn" was used to emphasisemphasize Christ's special status. In other words, He was not just a son, He was (well, is) THE Son.

 This is a compelling argument, sort of reminds me of an excerpt of a book I just read:

 

I recently found another argument that may help. Apparently there was some fee a family could pay to remove their firstborn son from the Mosaic Role as a priest, in these cases a Levite would take their place. Since Jesus is recognized as a priest, he would be described as inheriting his rights as a firstborn. Perhaps since John lived in the desert for most of his life he was not a priest in the sense of being the firstborn and that may be why he is described as 'a son'. Living a solitary life in the desert would be hard if he needed the training to be a priest and it would also make it difficult for him to follow his responsibilities as a priest in the Jewish firstborn sense.  I'm not sure of the Biblical and/or historical backing on this, but its an interesting theory. John the baptist is also described as a priest, but not in the same way as Levites or firstborn sons were so to speak. If this is true, it may explain why Luke described Jesus and John's births the way he did, why he would emphasize Jesus's role as a firstborn son in the Jewish tradition.

[CatholicsAreKewl]

Is there a rebuttal for the argument that ha-almah is mistranslated in the Greek version of Isaiah?

[Amppax]

Is there a rebuttal for the argument that ha-almah is mistranslated in the Greek version of Isaiah?

Yep. The rebuttal being that in Jewish culture, the word almah, while not specifically meaning virgin, would only have been used to refer to virgins. At least, that's how I have been taught to treat it.

[CatherineM]

It's important to remember when discussing the meaning of a single word in scripture, that it wasn't originally written in English.

[jazzytakara]

This may just be a classic example of needing to have faith and trust in God despite the objection of others... :nunpray:

[Chuck Joseph]

Blah Blah Blah, Aramaic (spoken) translated to Greek (written) translated to English by protestants trying to find a way to discredit Mary the Virgin Mother. Aramaic makes no distinction between first born son and son except in this case first born means THE Son and you should infer that it is referring to THE Son of God. ^{Ezekiel 44:2} And he said to me, “This gate shall remain shut; it shall not be opened, and no one shall enter by it; for the Lord, the God of Israel, has entered by it; therefore it shall remain shut.

Edited July 22, 2013 by Chuck Joseph

[Apotheoun]

The following is from the Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of America website:

 

"With respect to the Hebrew noun ‘almah, the editors of HALOT list among its meanings: 'marriageable girl,' 'a girl who is able to be married,' and 'a young woman' (until the birth of her first child). The basic meaning is a woman (the age is less important) ready (able) to be married. The span of life covered by this term is poorly defined and quite long, ranging from the onset of puberty to the birth of a woman's first child.

 

We propose a different etymology, namely, to derive the noun ‘almah from the root ‘-l-m I 'to be concealed, hidden,' well attested in Hebrew. If this etymology proves to be correct, ‘alem (masculine) and ‘almah (feminine) would designate an engaged couple, which would accordingly be rendered as 'the concealed ones.' During the period of betrothal, fiancés used to live in their parents' homes, separated, secluded, forbidden from seeing one another. The feminine form, ‘almah, may also be rendered 'the concealed one' or even 'the veiled one.' This last rendition would reflect the custom of engaged women wearing veils over their faces as a sign of seclusion, or concealment, during the time of betrothal. We may mention that, given the ethical standards of the ancient Israelite society, the idea of virginity, though not distinctly stated, is nevertheless implied in the term ‘almah. As is the case concerning the providential woman from Genesis 3:15 (ha-‘ishshah 'the woman'), the noun ha-‘almah 'the concealed one' from Isaiah 7:14 has the definite article attached, which points to a special female character, chosen by God from the very beginning to become the mother of Messiah."

 

 

The Word ‘almah in Isaiah 7:14: A New Etymology

[Basilisa Marie]

It's important to remember when discussing the meaning of a single word in scripture, that it wasn't originally written in English.

 

Exactly, and to remember that it was written by an author to an audience with a whole different cultural background from which to draw their understanding of the text.  Hence, cultural context can be a super important, and enlightening, thing. :) 

[Gabriela]

Blah Blah Blah, Aramaic (spoken) translated to Greek (written) translated to English by protestants trying to find a way to discredit Mary the Virgin Mother. Aramaic makes no distinction between first born son and son except in this case first born means THE Son and you should infer that it is referring to THE Son of God. ^{Ezekiel 44:2} And he said to me, “This gate shall remain shut; it shall not be opened, and no one shall enter by it; for the Lord, the God of Israel, has entered by it; therefore it shall remain shut.

 

Welcome to Phatmass, Chuck Joseph! :-)