Gabriela Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 Really Germany?! Who knew, eh? Nasty porn, too... Way worse than the American stuff. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the171 Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 Who knew, eh? Nasty porn, too... Way worse than the American stuff. No, I already knew that. I'm talking about the dang bishops. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhuturePriest Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 I think the real issue at hand is that Hasan is impersonating himself as me. Or a Benedictine Priest from the wedding. Either way, identity theft is a crime, Mr. Hasan. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Evangetholic Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 Right. It "may" never be done in society at large, either, and yet it happens all the time. So... The question is: Would the Church recognize such a rape as forced and permit the woman to take the pill, or would the Church argue that there is no such thing as marital rape and so forbid her to take the pill? That's the whole point I'm trying to get at here. I think the issue of "contraception" gets way more complicated when explicitly connected with marriage (I could say more about this, but I will not). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Slappo Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 I would quickly be getting out of my depth in this subject, but this is how I understand the situation as-is. The prohibition against contraception applies specifically to consensual sexual intercourse, which of course is only licit in marriage. The primary reason contraception is wrong is that it undermines the twofold purpose of intercourse, which is that it be procreative and unitive. It undermines both aspects, first because one actively rejects the procreative obligation, and second because one holds a vital piece of themselves back from their partner. The argument is that our objections to contraception do not apply in the case of rape, because the act itself is already such a violation that its unitive aspect is utterly annihilated. Like I said, I am getting very quickly out of my depth, so I do not want to say more than this. And I will also be clear that this represents the status of the question as I understand it, rather than my personal views on the matter. If I am remembering correctly, this is the same bishops' conference that was found to own a publishing company that published erotic novels. What exactly is going on in Germany these days? :blink: Crap I just had soemthign written up to add to this but don't have time to rewrite it all. The sperm is an aggressor in the scenario of rape. Until the sperm and egg are conjoined where a zygote is formed and a human soul is created, the woman can protect herself and her fertility from the aggressor through any means available (spermicide, a non-abortificient medication, etc). Hypothetically if the victim had the option of whether or not a condom was used in a case of rape, the victim could opt to have a condom used and would not be guilty of the sin of contraception. This only applies to non-consensual intercourse. I won't touch the question of contraceptives in a case of rape within a marriage with a 10 foot pole... :) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Slappo Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 All in all, I agree with nihil and think he nicely summed up the purposes of marital intercourse Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BigJon16 Posted March 6, 2013 Share Posted March 6, 2013 The erotic universe of the German people is famously something that that you should avoid poking too deeply into. And how does a fifteen year old American kid know this? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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