Question From Another Forum

[jazzytakara]

I'm a member of a Catholic discussion group on facebook and recently a debate about Mary's perpetual virginity has begun with a Protestant member. The argument was put first that Jesus was called firstborn, the Catholic responses have highlighted the title as being a cultural thing for the first and sometimes only child, as such it can be inferred that firstborn can also title an only son. However the protestant on our group countered with a reference to John the Baptist, as he was Elizabeth's only son, but was never called firstborn, as such by calling Jesus firstborn, meant he had brothers. 

 

Since this no one has been able to respond with an appropriate argument to address this. Can anyone help with this particular reference to John the Baptist not being called firstborn? Also any other supporting arguments for Mary's perpetual virginity would help too. Its one of those things I am confused about at times as well.

 

Thank you.

[cappie]

There are some very common objections to the belief that Mary remained a virgin after the birth of Jesus.

 

1) The Bible frequently speaks of the "brothers" and "sisters" of Jesus.

 

First it is important to note that the Bible does not say that these "brothers and sisters" of Jesus were children of Mary.

 

Second, the word for brother (or sister), adelphos (adelpha) in Greek, denotes a brother or sister, or near kinsman. Aramaic and other semitic languages could not distinguish between a blood brother or sister and a cousin, for example. Hence, John the Baptist, a cousin of Jesus (the son of Elizabeth, cousin of Mary) would be called "a brother (adelphos) of Jesus." In the plural, the word means a community based on identity of origin or life. Additionally, the word adelphos is used for (1) male children of the same parents (Mt 1:2); (2) male descendants of the same parents (Acts 7:23); (3) male children of the same mother (Gal 1:19); (4) people of the same nationality (Acts 3:17); (5) any man, a neighbor (Lk 10:29); (6) persons united by a common interest (Mt 5:47); (7) persons united by a common calling (Rev 22:9); (8) mankind (Mt 25:40); (9) the disciples (Mt 23:8); and (10) believers (Mt 23:8). (From Vine's Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, Thomas Nelson, Publisher.)

 

2) A second objection to Mary's virginity arises from the use of the word heos in Matthew's gospel. "He (Joseph) had no relations with her at any time before (heos) she bore a son, whom he named Jesus" (Mt 1:25, NAB).

 

The Greek and the Semitic use of the word heos (until or before) does not imply anything about what happens after the time indicated. In this case, there is no necessary implication that Joseph and Mary had sexual contact or other children after Jesus.

 

3) A third objection to the perpetual virginity of Mary arises from the use of the word prototokos, translated 'first-born' in Luke's gospel.

 

But the Greek word prototokos is used of Christ as born of Mary and of Christ's relationship to His Father (Col 1:25). As the word does not imply other children of God the Father, neither does it imply other children of Mary.

 

The term "first-born" was a legal term under the Mosaic Law (Ex 6:14) referring to the first male child born to Jewish parents regardless of any other children following or not. Hence when Jesus is called the "first-born" of Mary it does not mean that there were second or third-born children.

 

Excerpted and abridged from Chap. 7 of A Biblical Apologetic of the Catholic Faith, by Dr. Robert Schihl, Professor at Regent University

 

John the Baptist is not called first born true, but you can't in my opinion, argue from that the contrary in regards Jesus. It is not logical.