Mary+Immaculate<3 Posted January 11, 2013 Share Posted January 11, 2013 Are men who have been ordained in the Catholic Church, no matter what the circumstances, celebrating valid Catholic Mass? For example: a priest goes really off the rails and allows liturgical dance, female "priest" con-celebrators, and every other abuse imaginable. If he says the appropriate words of consecration, will it still be a valid Mass? I'm just wondering, please tell me in what circumstances the Mass wouldn't be valid and what it would be. I am not implying that I would ever go to a church that allows that in the least, I'm simply inquiring out of concern. Once on the Vortex, Michael Voris said that there was an abuse of the Holy Eucharist, and they had given it to a dog :( as it turns out though, the "priest" had allowed a woman to preside over the majority of the Mass, so it wasn't actually the Holy Eucharist, but simply bread. Thank you for whatever reply you might have for me. Peace, Mary-Catherine Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cappie Posted January 11, 2013 Share Posted January 11, 2013 (edited) Presuming that he is a validly ordained Catholic priest and does not labor under a canonical penalty and has not has his faculties revoked by the bishop then the following would apply........... "Licit" means "in conformity with the law," while "illicit" means "not in conformity with the law." A celebration of the liturgy is in conformity with the law (licit) if those celebrating it don’t break any of the Church’s laws in their celebration. It is illicit if they do break such laws. "Valid," by contrast," means (effectively) "real," while "invalid" means "unreal." This is important in the context of liturgy, for example, because even an unlawful (illicit) celebration of the Mass may have at its heart a valid (real) consecration of the Eucharist. From an ultimate perspective, the FIRST question one should ask about a celebration of the Eucharist is whether it is valid (i.e., does Jesus really become present?). The SECOND question is whether–even if Jesus does really become present–the celebration is lawful (licit) according to the Church. Also look at this http://www.phatmass.com/phorum/topic/126095-valid-consecration/ Edited January 11, 2013 by cappie Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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