jazzytakara Posted November 18, 2012 Share Posted November 18, 2012 I heard an argument the other day against Mary's Immaculate Conception, and I was just wondering what the theology was behind this belief. The argument was that if Mary needed to be conceived without sin, and by God's grace she was, so she could bear Jesus without sin, why then could God not have simply insured Jesus was sinless by means of his immaculate conception. The argument continues to address that if Mary needed to be sinless to be Jesus's mother, would her mother not need to be sinless too in order for Mary to be sinless, and so on through Mary's maternal family tree? The argument concludes that if God had the ability to insure Mary was sinless despite sinful human parents, then could He not have simply conceived Jesus without sin and left Mary be as it obviously wasn't needed if her mother conceived her via sin, etc. The argument is meant to invalidate Marian beliefs and falsehood in the Catholic Church, could someone help me understand better? Thank you! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CatherineM Posted November 18, 2012 Share Posted November 18, 2012 I am not a Marian scholar, however, Jesus didn't need a sinless mother to be sinless. God needed a pure vessel to place his pure son in. Just as we use gold or gold lined vessels to hold the sacred blood instead of red plastic beer cups. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now