lilac_angel Posted May 21, 2004 Share Posted May 21, 2004 I recently came across people who believe that one can dispense with the Church's teachings on certain issues they disagree with, such as abortion, homosexuality, etc. -- because the moral teachings are supposedly not infallible papal pronouncements. They believe that they are entitled to the Eucharist even though they may be going against certain core Catholic teachings. What would I say to someone like this? How would I prove that these teachings *must* be obeyed in order for the person to be in a state of grace? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pio Nono Posted December 26, 2004 Share Posted December 26, 2004 JMJ 12/26 - The Holy Family (St. Stephen the Protomartyr) lilac_angel, Unfortunately, what you describe (and the answer I believe you are looking for) is heavily influenced by nominalist thinking. Without going into great detail on nominalism, let's just go at it this way... The New Law of the Gospel is inscribed upon the heart of man, according to St. Paul. This is not a list of prescriptions, rather, it is the love of God active in the heart of man. The rules are there as guides, or lights upon the way that allow us to love God more. To violate the Law of God is to tread upon one's love for Him. God has clearly laid down that His Church has authority over issues regarding morality. If one disagrees with His Church on a moral issue, then one disagrees with God Himself. Yet Holy Communion is a deep act of love for God by a member of the faithful. Thus, we're giving ourselves to God with our right hand (by receiving communion) and taking away with our left (by treading on His Law). This doesn't sound like a loving situation to me. If we are disagree with the Church, we protest against Her and Her Founder - we are [b]protest[/b]ants. Hope this helps. Yours, Pio Nono Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apotheoun Posted December 26, 2004 Share Posted December 26, 2004 [quote name='lilac_angel' date='May 21 2004, 09:58 AM'] I recently came across people who believe that one can dispense with the Church's teachings on certain issues they disagree with, such as abortion, homosexuality, etc. -- because the moral teachings are supposedly not infallible papal pronouncements. They believe that they are entitled to the Eucharist even though they may be going against certain core Catholic teachings. What would I say to someone like this? How would I prove that these teachings *must* be obeyed in order for the person to be in a state of grace? [/quote] Teachings on moral issues like abortion, euthanasia, and the sinful character of homosexual activity, etc., have been infallibly taught through non-defining acts of the Ordinary and Universal Magisterium; therefore, a man who dissents from the Church's moral doctrine cuts himself off from full communion with the Catholic Church. [see CIC, canon 750 § 2; see also CCEO, canon 598 § 2] In other words, when a man dissents from the Church's moral doctrine and continues to receive the blessed sacrament, it is – as Pio Nono pointed out – the equivalent of him giving himself to God with his right hand (by receiving holy communion), while simultaneously spurning God with his left hand (by not keeping the moral law through the power of grace). God bless, Todd Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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