Mark of the Cross Posted August 15, 2012 Share Posted August 15, 2012 I suppose this has been asked before numero times but anyway i want opinions please. One popular answer is that Jesus took on the sins of the world and God had to look away. I asked a priest about this and he agreed with me that it's bull! For one, Father, Son and Holy Spirit are one. How could God turn from Jesus without segregating him and thus becoming two? When he died he 'gave up the spirit' that is he left his mortal body and to the theif "Verily I say unto you, you will be[b] with me in Paradise[u] this day[/u][/b]!" But his body descended into hell. This is not the hell of the damned it is the pit or the grave. From there on the third day he rose again (His human body) and he raised the just that lived before him. We see here a very complex and difficult to understand event. (Possibly that heaven/God is not subject to time.) But it is obviously predetermined and Jesus knows exactly why and what he is doing. For him to express doubt does not seem contiguous with the love he is expressing! And it's his love that's taking away sins, not that he is taking them like a bag of rocks. Another explanation I read was that it was a Psalms 22 reference directed at nearby Pharisees. Possibly, but so what? The Pharisees even if any were in earshot were in a blood mood and I doubt if they were interested. To this day they still do not believe he is the Messiah. Now my question Jesus is the word of God. The Bible is his instrument to talk to us. Logically I think Jesus is talking to us. What is he saying to you? Could he be saying that there will be times when in your suffering you will think that God has abandoned you but then Jesus says [i][url="http://www.drbo.org/x/d?b=drb&bk=49&ch=23&l=46#x"]Luke 23 [46][/url] And Jesus crying out with a loud voice, said: Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit. [/i] (Trust in God) Sorry if there are any serious errors here, but this is how I learn. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
KnightofChrist Posted August 15, 2012 Share Posted August 15, 2012 Pope John Paul II explained it fairly well. Here's the link: http://www.vatican.va/holy_father/john_paul_ii/audiences/alpha/data/aud19881130en.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mark of the Cross Posted August 15, 2012 Author Share Posted August 15, 2012 [quote name='KnightofChrist' timestamp='1344994969' post='2467710'] Pope John Paul II explained it fairly well. Here's the link: [url="http://www.vatican.va/holy_father/john_paul_ii/audiences/alpha/data/aud19881130en.html"]http://www.vatican.v...19881130en.html[/url] [/quote] Thanks, very happy with that. It's very much what I thought. [quote]Jesus also established a new manner of solidarity with us who are so often moved to raise our eyes and words to heaven to express our complaint and even desperation.[/quote] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skinzo Posted August 15, 2012 Share Posted August 15, 2012 (edited) "However a question arises within us: how is it possible that such a powerful God does not intervene to save his Son from this terrible trial? It is important to understand that Jesus’ prayer is not the cry of one who meets death with despair, nor is it the cry of one who knows he has been forsaken. At this moment Jesus makes his own the whole of Psalm 22[21], the Psalm of the suffering People of Israel. In this way he takes upon himself not only the sin of his people, but also that of all men and women who are suffering from the oppression of evil and, at the same time, he places all this before God’s own heart, in the certainty that his cry will be heard in the Resurrection: “The cry of extreme anguish is at the same time the certainty of an answer from God, the certainty of salvation — not only for Jesus himself, but for ‘many’†([i]Jesus of Nazareth[/i], II, pp. 213-214 Ignatius Press, San Francisco 2011)." Pope Benedict XVI Feb. 8, 2012 [url="http://www.ewtn.com/library/PAPALDOC/b16chrstpryr26.HTM"]http://www.ewtn.com/...chrstpryr26.HTM[/url] S. Edited August 15, 2012 by Skinzo Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tab'le De'Bah-Rye Posted August 16, 2012 Share Posted August 16, 2012 (edited) Possibly the word forsaken is more a cry out from jesus for mankind, for jesus is in his mortal body still when saying this and still fully man and fully GOD and has not resurected. I find it hard to explain but deep in my heart i know the truth of what i believe that he was doing his final intercession for men in his mortal flesh. His flesh had to die, as does ours, till the resurection. One can look at the english dictionary meanings of paticular words in sacred scripture and not get the biblical sense of the word. All i just said is just an idea, hence why i opened with possibly. Onward christian souls. JESUS iz LORD. Edited August 16, 2012 by Tab'le Du'Bah-Rye Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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