bobinator Posted October 22, 2011 Share Posted October 22, 2011 1 Cor. 11:3 "But I want you to know Christ is the head of every man, and the husband the head of every wife, and God the head of Christ." "[i]Head[/i]: The Greek word [i] Kephale[/i] never connotes authority or superiority; "source" is the only appropriate meaning here." -The New Jerome Biblical Commentary. (1.) "It is a hybrid model, for it grafts onto a strictly theological scale of existence (1 Cor. 3:21-23) the hierarchy of sociosexual relations prevalent in the ancient world: men, dominant, reflect the active function of Christ in relations his church; women, submissive, reflect the passive role of the church to its savior. This gives us the functional scale: God, Christ, man woman." -Footnote from the New American Bible. (St, Joseph Edition). (2.) 1. But if God is the source of Christ wouldn't that mean that God (the Father) created, or was before, Christ? I know of John 1:1 and that there are plenty of verses in the bible that state Christ's preexistence with the Father, but since the bible cannot contradict itself, this verse is puzzling. 2. Again, why is there the "functional scale" if Christ, being a member of the Trinity, is equal to God the Father? 1 Cor. 3:23 " and you to Christ, and Christ to God." "The [i] ad hominem[/i] character of the argument in vv 21-22 is underlined by the formal statement of the relation of all to Christ, and his subordination to God." -The New Jerome Biblical Commentary. Does this mean Christ is subordinate to God the Father? Any clarification on these points with biblical references is much appreciated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Byzantine Posted October 22, 2011 Share Posted October 22, 2011 [quote name='bobinator' timestamp='1319262555' post='2325048'] 1. But if God is the source of Christ wouldn't that mean that God (the Father) created, or was before, Christ? I know of John 1:1 and that there are plenty of verses in the bible that state Christ's preexistence with the Father, but since the bible cannot contradict itself, this verse is puzzling. . [/quote] Not necessarily. Christ was begotten of the Father before time existed. I know that is part of the key to solving this. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Selah Posted October 22, 2011 Share Posted October 22, 2011 You made a thread about this in the debate table... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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